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Author Topic: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10  (Read 3896 times)

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Marlene

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Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« on: July 20, 2009, 06:37:32 PM »

I have been reading in my KJV and my Rotherham's  and NIV and looked up some other Bibles. Verse 9 and 10 are some what confusing to me. I know, there is no contradictions in the Bible.

(KJV) Isaiah 26:9 With my soul have I desired thee in the night; yea with my spirit within me will I seek thee early: for when thy judgements are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world will learn righteousness.
                 26:10 Let favour be shewed to the wicked, yet will he not learn righteousness: in the land of uprightness will he deal unjustly, and will not behold the majesty of the Lord.

(NIV) Isaiah 26:9 My soul  yearns for you in the night; in the morning my spirit longs for you. When your judgments come upon the earth, the people of the world learn righteousness.
                 26:10 Though grace is shown to the wicked they do not learn righteousness even in a land of uprightness they go on doing eveil and regard not the majesty of the Lord.

(Rotherham's) Isaiah 26.9 With my soul>longed I for thee in the night, Yea<with my spirit within me>I kept on searching for thee, For when< thy regulations (extend to the earth )> The inhabitants of the world will have learned righetousness.
                   Isaiah 26:10 <Let favour be shewed to the lawless> he hath not learned righeousness.In a land of honest dealings.>He acteth perversely,
and seeth  not the splendour of Yahweh.

Now, I know in one of Ray's articles he uses Isaiah 26:9 to show us that God will teach all righetousness when he returns. When, I read in the NIV verse 10 it seems to be saying they will not learn. But, in the KJV it seems they will.

Then in the Rotherham's seem to be different in the way it is worded in verse 9 it has when thy regulations (extend )to the earth the i habitants of the world will have learned righetousness.

I also, looked into some other translations. But, they all seem to be saying they will not learn even in a land of honest dealings.

I was wondering if someone could help me understand these different translations. Is the second verse talking about something different  then the first.
I really hated to bother any of you with this. But, I just can't get these scriptures off my mind. Verse 9 in Rotherham's seems plainer to me then in the NIV
Because the Rotherman's shows his regulations will extend to all the inhabitants of the earth and they will learn righteousness. I have tried to read Isaiah many times all the way through. But, it never made alot of sense to me. So, I would stop. The Lord has impressed on me this week to read it all the way through and I am going to do it rather I understand it all or not.

Also,  could anyone tell me if there are any more witness to these scriptures.

In His Love,
Marlene ???
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Dave UK

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Re: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« Reply #1 on: July 20, 2009, 06:58:58 PM »

Hi Marlene

this is Ray's commentary on those scriptures taken April 08 study Despising The Word Of God

Quote
Isa 26:9  …for when Your judgments are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world will learn righteousness.

I’ve had three people now tell me, ‘Ray you ignorant Scriptural so and so, read the next verse.’  Okay let’s read it.

Isa 26:10  Let favor be showed to the wicked, yet will he not learn righteousness:

They say, ‘Ray can you read?  You took that out of context.’  No I didn’t.  What’s the answer, does anybody have an answer for that, “yet will he not learn righteousness?”  Yes you can show favor, you can show love, you can prosper the wicked and they won’t learn righteousness, that is not what verse 9 said.  It says “when thy judgments are in the earth” he’ll learn righteousness.  As long as he gets his own way, no he won’t learn righteousness.

Now context, context, context… listen this is Isaiah, he is talking to Israel and Judah, he is talking about the impending Babylonian captivity, where God is going to destroy them.  Now from that day forward was there ever a time, in any context, where the judgment of God were in the land? “when Your judgments are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world will learn righteousness”?  When did that context take place?  Do you know, in history, where Judah turned to God and learned righteousness, the whole land, all of them?  Do you know such a time?  No you don’t.  Shall I tell you why?  Because there never was such a time.  So you can’t put that verse in the context of the sixth century BC, because it’s a prophecy for the future.  It never happened back then.  If God says it will happen, they “will learn righteousness,” but it never happened.  So if the only way it could have happen, is if it happened back then in the context of Judah, then God is a liar and your Bible is a liar and you might as well throw it away.  So much for context.  This is a prophecy, not a historical statement and it never happened.  It’s yet future.

So we read statements like this and they are positive wonderful statements and there is no statement to the exact contrary.  There is no statement that says, when My judgments are in the earth the inhabitants of the whole world will NOT learn righteousness.  There is no such Scripture.  But are there Scriptures that contradict it anyway?  These theologians will tell you, ‘yes, hundreds.’   So can you show me a Scripture that will show me that this is not true?  They will say, ‘absolutely.’  So you believe in contradictions?  ‘Context Ray context, the statement is true, but in context.’  But when did that ever happen in context?  It didn’t, because that’s the context back there in the sixth century BC, so it didn’t happen.  But God says it would happen, so what happened to God’s power to bring about what he says?

Hope it helps

Dave
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bluzman

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Re: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« Reply #2 on: July 20, 2009, 07:08:13 PM »

Hi Marlene,
   Just to add to what Dave posted, I understand the verse to mean (If) they are shown favor. So I guess they
won't be shown favor. I think it is more of a supposition.
   Please don't take me to the bank on what I have posted.
    Peace, Bluzman
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Kat

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Re: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« Reply #3 on: July 20, 2009, 07:39:57 PM »


Hi Marlene,

Verse 10 is talking about how things are now, in this age and verse 9 is talking about when Christ rules in the next age.  I like how the GNB has it.

Isa 26:9  At night I long for you with all my heart; when you judge the earth and its people, they will all learn what justice is.
v. 10  Even though you are kind to the wicked, they never learn to do what is right. Even here in a land of righteous people they still do wrong; they refuse to recognize your greatness.

Here is another excerpt, it may bring a little more clarity to this. 

http://bible-truths.com/lake16-D4.htm --------------------

To "judge" means to set right, whether it is in chastening or sentencing. "Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right"-that is to judge justly so as to bring about change.   

"When Thy [God's] judgments are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world [everyone] will learn righteousness" (Isaiah 26:9).

When the wicked are left to their own devices, they will NOT learn righteousness, but when God's just judgments are added to the mix, and Jesus judges in righteousness, they cannot but "learn righteousness."
-----------------------------------------------------------------------

mercy, peace and love
Kat

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Marlene

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Re: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« Reply #4 on: July 20, 2009, 08:22:04 PM »

Thanks everyone this makes sense now. I should remember that those in Israel only had the promise. It was before Jesus had died. I can see now how it was for a future time. But verse 10 confused me. Have to think with spiritual eyes for sure. How, the GNB has it Kat really helped me.

In His Love,
Marlene
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bunnylife

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Re: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« Reply #5 on: July 21, 2009, 01:39:47 AM »

Marlene, thank you for bringing that up. I just finished the book Isaiah and slowly going through the OT prophets. It makes me wonder why verse 10 was stated first then verse 9 but Father God in His wisdom knows exactly how to get across His message. He also knew others would use it to say that God won't do what He promised because of the hardness of the hearts.

I see the two verses as the spiritual man (new creature) and the carnal nature (old man). The carnal nature you can impose all the laws and try to reform him but he still won't learn righteousness. It only comes from the grace of God which is the judgments of God (the same) that the carnal man becomes converted to the spiritual.

It is a wonderful promise from Father God to the everyone. Well it is the Gospel.

In His Joy,
Bunni
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G. Driggs

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Re: Question about Isaiah Chapter 26 verse 9 and 10
« Reply #6 on: July 21, 2009, 03:26:38 AM »

I was just thinking about these verses the other day, thanks to all the responses and your question Marlene it makes more sense now.

Here is a pretty good translation from the NIrV, and it jives quite well with GNB translation that Kat provided.

Isa 26:9  My heart longs for you at night. My spirit longs for you in the morning. You will come and judge the earth. Then the people of the world will learn to do what is right.
Isa 26:10  Grace is shown to sinful people. But they still don't learn to do what is right. They keep on doing evil even in a land where others are honest and fair. They don't have any respect for the majesty of the LORD.

Peace, G.Driggs
« Last Edit: July 21, 2009, 03:31:25 AM by G. Driggs »
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