> General Discussions

Just a short question

(1/3) > >>

Morten:
How many words do you guys think is wrong translated in the bible, or should have been interpreted correctly.

Kat:

Hi Morten,

Here are few emails where Ray answered this, it should help with your question.


http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,6261.0.html ------

My main study and teaching Bible is the King James. This is because most of the English Bibles of the world are either King James or in the King James "family" of translations. All Bibles contain "the Truth of God."  Granted there are a number of words that are not translated properly in most Bibles, but one can learn what these are without throwing away our Bibles.       

        The Greek word "aion" which means an age or indeterminate period of time with both a beginning and an ending, when used as an adjective "aionios" does NOT change into "everlasting, for ever and ever, evermore, or eternal." That is grammatical foolishness. Learn this one fact well, and you won't have a major problem with ANY Bible translation.  See my article: "Is EVERLASTING Scriptural" on our home page.

       
http://www.forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,3239.0.html ---

There is no giant difference in most texts. Most translations from the oldest manuscripts compare all the best manuscripts in their Versions. I consult a dozen or more versions in my study, however, truth is not found in the "most perfect manuscript." The spiritual teaching is found in all manuscripts. The only really GIANT problem with most modern Versions is one of interpretation, not translation. There is no equivalent in either the Hebrew or Greek manuscripts to justify the use of such words as "for ever and ever," "everlasting/evermore," and "eternal." That's it!  Translate olam/aion/aionios properly, and ALL translations will contain the truths of God regardless as to whether some are better or more accurate than others.

           
http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,10187.0.html --------

Sounds simple enough, however, there is a lot more to it than what you state.

First, what do you mean by "THE Bible (God's Word)?"  There are hundreds and hundreds

of "different" Bibles.  Yes, "different."  So how can one "let the Bible say what it says and mean

what it means?"  There are any number of "bibles" which do not contain the English word "hell"

even one time.  So what are we to make of that?  I John 5:7 appears in most modern English

Bibles, yet there is not one example of this verse in any manuscript dated before the 15th

Century.  The words "evermore," "everlasting," and eternal are found in most modern English

bibles, yet "eternal" has no equivalent whatsoever in the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts.  So

there we have a few bits of "bible" that are NOT "God's Word" at all. So in reality, many bibles

don't "say what the original manuscripts say."  I agree that we should let God's Word "mean what

it means," but then again, WHO decides what it "means" in the first place?  And so, there is a

need for teachers, and it behooves all students to study and compare carefully what all these

"different" teachers teach.   Etc., etc.  Too big a subject for an email, and so that is why we

started "bible-truths.com."

God be with you,

Ray

Morten:
thanks for your answer, but i was wondring more about the number, not the exact number, because that's impossible. I was thinking more like, is it 5000-10000 words or is it 500-1000 etc.?

sansmile:
Hi,

I think i read something Ray wrote once, which stated that the KJV has corrected over 50000 words since it was first published.

In Christ
Sandie

Extol:
I was just reading last night [The Case for the Real Jesus by Lee Strobel] about all of the textual variants among the Greek N.T. manuscripts. A prominent agnostic pointed out that there are hundreds of thousands of variants. Sounds alarming, but almost all of them are virtually insignificant: for example, one manuscript will say "God" while the other says "Lord"...one manuscript will say "a" while another says "an"...one manuscript spells John with one N, another with two, etc. In other words, hardly any of these variants change the Scripture at all.
 The few mistakes that do change the text still are not terribly significant. In Romans 5:1, some versions say "We have peace", others say "Let us have peace". In 1 John 1:4, some manuscripts have "we are writing these things so that our joy may be complete"; others say "..so your joy may be complete". These are different words and mean different things, but is the overall message changed? No. In Romans, the message is that peace comes through being justified by faith. In 1 John, joy comes through the writing of 1 John.
These minor differences do not change the foundational truths that we believe. It's not like the ancient manuscripts say "Christ did not die for the ungodly", and somehow our modern translations twisted it to "Christ died for the ungodly".

 Apart from the words "aion/aionios" in the N.T. and Sheol/olam in the O.T., as well as some later additions (see list of spurious passages: http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,6638.0.html), I don't think there are any major problems with how our modern English Bibles are translated.

Navigation

[0] Message Index

[#] Next page