> General Discussions

Complete Word Study

<< < (2/2)

shibboleth:
He makes no mention of aion or eon in his bible. He uses Strongs concordance and the numbers keyed to the particular words in scriptures.
He has a section in the back of the Bible called "grammatical notations." this section tells what the different tenses of grammar are in Greek.

Aidios: from aei (104), ever, always. Eternal, absolutely, without beginning or end. (Rom.1:20) Perpetual, without end.(Jude6)

This is all he has in my Bible. If you want his study Bible for study of Greek or Hebrew, you may want this Bible. I don't use it much anymore because I have e-sword and it's so much handier. Hope this helps.

Daniel:

--- Quote ---Aidios: from aei (104), ever, always. Eternal, absolutely, without beginning or end. (Rom.1:20) Perpetual, without end.(Jude6)
--- End quote ---


Actually these sound more like descriptions of the Spirit of truth who "abideth" in us.

"Age abiding" in that respect. "Without beginning and end". "Ever" present, "always" interceding and "perpetual".

In relation to "eternal life" (or whichever "word" one choses to use). He is instumental (who abideth) making known the the things which "pertain to God" (who is) "unseen". That which is "imperceptible" by the "natural man" is by His Spirit given us "to know".

Makes sense in whichever "word" one choses to use, especially when you see "who" it is applied to. We are given the Spirit "to know" who bares witness with our spirit we are the Sons of God, led by Him.

You can "work it out" through whichever book one uses if you can get past wrestling over the concrete words. Compare elsewhere from "within the verse" to "other verses" expressing the same thought concerning "the life" that "now is" and "abideth in us".

Peace

Daniel

Brett:

--- Quote from: shibboleth ---He makes no mention of aion or eon in his bible. He uses Strongs concordance and the numbers keyed to the particular words in scriptures.
He has a section in the back of the Bible called "grammatical notations." this section tells what the different tenses of grammar are in Greek.

Aidios: from aei (104), ever, always. Eternal, absolutely, without beginning or end. (Rom.1:20) Perpetual, without end.(Jude6)

This is all he has in my Bible. If you want his study Bible for study of Greek or Hebrew, you may want this Bible. I don't use it much anymore because I have e-sword and it's so much handier. Hope this helps.
--- End quote ---


I have e-sword, too. I assume you have The Complete Word Study by Spiros Zodhiates in your e-sword? It cost $40 to get those because of AMG Publisher. That is reason why I wanted know what is in before I can buy them.

I have Ray Smith and other man discussion of adios. Though, you would like to read. There are no eternal anywhere in Hebrew and Greek manuscript, not once. We do have immortality in scripture which mean never death, that is good news!  O:)



--- Quote ---Dear Mr. Ray:

Greetings to you in Jesus’ name. I must tell you that some of your writings have caused me to think and reflect on my own theological assumptions. That’s always a good thing.

I would like to know why the Concordant Literal Translation translates the Greek word aidios, which appears in Romans 1:20 and Jude 6 to mean “imperceptible� or “unperceived,� when both Young and Strong translate that word to mean “everlasting� or “eternal�. Why this difference between the Concordant and the other literal translation? Isn’t the word “imperceptible� used in the Concordant to refer to hades? But hades is not the word used in these two references; it is aidios. In the case of Romans 1:20, it makes sense to attribute eternality (aidios) to God, because he alone is eternal. What about Jude 6? The Greek word used here is not aionios but aidios, the same word used in Romans 1:20. If aidios means that which is “perpetual� or “never ending,� does this mean that the “everlasting� chains in Jude 6 is, indeed, everlasting or eternal chains?

I would appreciate you clarifying this apparent discrepancy. Why is concordant translating the word aidios to mean “imperceptible?�

Blessings,

Abraham ..., Ph.D.



Dear Dr. Abraham:

There are approximately 150 emails ahead of your, and I probably never will get them all answered, but as your's is more interesting than most, I thought that I would put yours up front.

I never use Young's translation anymore. I can't see any rhym or reason for the way he often translates. And Dr. Strong is as guilty at times of square circles as are the theologians of Christendom.

The word translated "eternal" in Rom. 1:20 and "everlasting" in Jude 6 is the Greek word "aidion." It is not the Greek words "aionios" or "hades." It is, however virtually the same in meaning as "hades." Hades means "to not see or preceive," and aidion also means "to not see or preceive." It does not NOT mean "eternal" or "everlasting" anymoe than "hades" means "eternal" or "everlasting." Hades is a NOUN, and henced is translated as "the UNSEEN." Whereas "aidion" which means the same thing virtually, is an adjective and therefore is translated "IMPERCEPTIBLE," rather than unsceen, although they both have the same basic meaning of not being able to physically see or perceive something.

Now then, that is the technical explanation of how it should be translated, but here is additional proof as to WHY it would be translated as such.

In Rom. 1:20 we read: "For the INVISIBLE things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly SEEN, being understood by the THINGS THAT ARE MADE, even [ALSO, or also including the following...] His ETERNAL [?] power and Godhead [Gk: 'Divinity']...."

Notice that the verse starts off speaking of 'INVISIBLE' things, then then explains that these INVISIBLE things can be understood by THE THINGS THAT ARE MADE [visible things]. But the word "even" refers back to the same proposition. What follows is "even" the same as the previous things. What things? "INVISIBLE THINGS." So we are not speaking of how long God lives, or whether his nature is "eternal" or "everlasting," or any such concept. we are speaking of "INVISLBLE THINGS." And what is andother (even) one of these INVISIBLE THINGS? Why His "IMPERCEPTIBLE [invisible] POWER." Simple, huh?

Now Jude 6. How in the world could these angels' chains be "EVERLASTING chains" since they only apply "...UNTO [unto means "until" and is the same greek word translated "until" in other Scriptures] the judgment of the great day." How can something be "everlasting," "UNTIL?" See the point of the context? Since they are only held in these chains 'UNTIL' Judgment, is proof positive, that these chains are NOT ETERNAL OR EVERLASTING. But, the chains are most assuredly "imperceptible." These messengers are not wearing LITERAL, VISIBLE, PHYSICAL, METAL CHAINS.

Hope this helps your understanding.

God be with you,

Ray
--- End quote ---

Navigation

[0] Message Index

[*] Previous page

Go to full version