Pagan words

[Roy Martin]

Hello everyone,
I've been reading LOF again as I always do, but this time I can't get away from the section on hell;starting with XVI part C.
The history of paganism is mind boggling, and absolutely overwhelming that has stirred a hunger in me to do further studies of which I started last night.
Hades and Sheol being pagan to the core has me confused as to why Jesus used these words, or did He? What word was used back in that time for grave, or where they put their dead? I know tomb is one of them, but Hades and Sheol are a pagan god or pagan place.
I'm missing something here, but can't quite put my finger on it.
Even the word amen was a pagan god during the 400 years of the Jews in slavery to Egypt. The meaning has been changed by the Jews to what we believe it to be what it is today, but Its in the scriptures many times.
 I can't keep from being suspicious about these words being used in scriptures. Is this a mystery, or could it be another one of those things that doesn't belong in the bible?
Too many thoughts coming at me right now with this so I'll try to stay focused at first on just hades and sheol. Why are these words capitalized, and why did Jesus use pagan words to describe the grave?
Thanks in advance. In the mean time I'll continue to study and research.

Roy

[Deborah-Leigh]

Hi Roy

Jesus spoke in parables. Even though the term Hades refered in that time to the Pagan god, WE know what Jesus meant. He certainly did not mean to elevate the Pagan god Hades to any status whatsoever. The terms He used would again disguise the meaning that is spiritually discerned.

One could just as well ask why Jesus refered to wheat and tares or any other reference He used to describe the Kingdom of God.

I would not worry too much about his use of the words Hades that is the Greek word for the Hebrew word Sheol.

Arc

[F@lgn0n]

Thanks for ur reply, Arc, but I have wondered the same thing.
The word 'hades' would, to Greek speaking people of the time, carry the connotation of the pagan underworld where souls were kept in torment (much like 'hell' is today).
*We* , of course, analyse the literal TRANSLATION of the word, but the people in Jesus' time did not . . .
So, are we saying that He used that word for the express purpose of misleading those who are/were not 'the elect' (in the same way He used the parables)?
Somehow, I'm just not seeing that . . .
I remain convinced that we're missing something here.

Peace.

[Deborah-Leigh]

So, are we saying that He used that word for the express purpose of misleading those who are/were not 'the elect'

This is a profound insight into how God works. It is not revealed, known or taught by the Church.

Re: DOES A SOVEREIGN GOD EVER CHANGE? . . . May 2008 Bible Study
July 18, 2008, 06:58:05 PM »

DOES GOD HIMSELF DECEIVE?
                                       
One other thought in relation to this, doesn't God sometimes use trickery or deceit?  Doesn't He sometimes blind people so that they can't see the truth?  All the time.  Things that aren't true, it seems that the church wants to believe.  But the things that are absolutely true, they don't want to believe.  They say, 'God would never deceive people on purpose.'  Of course He does. 

Arc

[Roy Martin]

Hi Arc,
I know that Jesus spoke in parables, and recognize that He used these words as a parable, and not to elevate the pagan belief. Being that it has a spiritual explanation is the cause for my hunger to know why these words were used, rather than correcting, but obviously these words were what even the disciples believed in, though they were pagan.
The ones in Babylon cling to these pagan words as their defense in hell teaching and believing, so it seems obvious that its a big part of how God hides His word from these people.
 As Ray says,(Egypt is mentioned from Genesis to Revelation--558 times (more than any other nation excepting Israel). This statistic alone should speak volumes to us regarding the importance of Egypt in God's plan for humankind. It behooves us to learn more about the nation of Egypt, its history, its culture, and its religion. It has everything to do with understanding the many unscriptural doctrines of the Christian Church.
Well after reading Rays studies of paganism, it struck a nerve that this is something I need to understand. I know the answers won't come easy, but persistence will prevail. Just be patient and hang in there with me, okay?

Roy

[F@lgn0n]

Arc
I do not disagree that God deceives those He wishes to hide the truth from.

When I said: "I'm just not seeing it" and "I remain convinced that we're missing something" - I was not implying that Jesus did NOT use those words that way.
Maybe He did.
Maybe that's all there is to it

But . . .

Somehow, whenever I go through these passages where He mentions hades .... I just can't get it out of my mind that He is referring to their pagan understanding of that "place" (as they thought of it) ...
I read those scriptures and get that same image. I know that it does not exist. The soul is not eternal. At death,we are "dead" - not in some other "realm" or place, but somehow .. the fact that He chose to use THAT particular word .... just gnaws at me - there is something more there, something we're not seeing (yet) - and it is MORE than simply "He was deliberately deceiving them" - that's just too simple.

ALL of God's other "means-by-which" "He-Sends-Them-Strong-Delusion" are far more subtle and complex.

This one is just too obvious. it's almost like a bold-faced lie. And of course, to suggest that, would be blasphemy.

You tell people they will go to a place that doesn't exist - that's exactly what Babylon does!

I just did a quick KJV Search for the word: "hell" in the NT (GOSPELS ONLY). It came up 15 times,of these - only 4 are Hades, and they are:
Mat 11:23 - Capernaum
Mat 16:18 - "gates" of Hades
Luk 10:15 - Capernaum
Luk 16:23 - Lazarus/Rich man Parable

All the rest are Gehenna - which of course has an entirely different meaning & connotation.

And NONE of the above scriptures have ANYTHING WHATSOEVER to do with the "eternal punishment" nonsense or the purifying fire of God or any of those subjects ....
Maybe I'm starting to see it now...
Gonna think a little more on this one.

Peace.

[Deborah-Leigh]

Hi Roy

God is leading you as He will lead you. There is absolutely NOTHING wrong in doing research. I would just caution you as a sister to a brother to beware of how you understand whatever it is that you are going to be studying. The Scriptures support this concern.

Mar 4:24  He also said to them, "Take care what you hear. With what measure you measure, it will be measured to you, and that with interest.

Php 4:8  Finally, brethren, whatever is true, whatever wins respect, whatever is just, whatever is pure, whatever is lovable, whatever is of good repute--if there is any virtue or anything deemed worthy of praise--cherish the thought of these things.

My stand point is one of care not to discourage you.

Arc

[Deborah-Leigh]

Hi F@lgn0n

No one needs to try to go and figure it all out on their own. The work has already been done and the results are in the LOF series. There is SO MUCH to digest that it needs to take root and grow through many many hours of discussion, appreciation and consideration. There is no quick fix.

The Gehenna fire is the judgment fire on all God's Elect.

Your conclusion is a profitable one. It is a worthy idea to think but also for us to learn some more about this topic.

Arc

[mharrell08]

Somehow, whenever I go through these passages where He mentions hades .... I just can't get it out of my mind that He is referring to their pagan understanding of that "place" (as they thought of it) ...
I read those scriptures and get that same image. I know that it does not exist. The soul is not eternal. At death,we are "dead" - not in some other "realm" or place, but somehow .. the fact that He chose to use THAT particular word .... just gnaws at me - there is something more there, something we're not seeing (yet) - and it is MORE than simply "He was deliberately deceiving them" - that's just too simple.

ALL of God's other "means-by-which" "He-Sends-Them-Strong-Delusion" are far more subtle and complex.

This one is just too obvious. it's almost like a bold-faced lie. And of course, to suggest that, would be blasphemy.

You tell people they will go to a place that doesn't exist - that's exactly what Babylon does!

F@lgn0n,

You are confusing what Hades is...Hades is synonymous with Sheol [Acts 2:27, Ps 16:10]. The Lord inspired many prophets to speak of Sheol throughout the OT...Sheol is not pagan in origin.

People's understanding & interpretation of Sheol/Hades is what changed. People, even NT Jews as Ray points out in LOF 16-C, began to attribute pagan beliefs to Sheol/Hades long before Christ began His earthly ministry.

It would not be a 'bold-faced lie' for the Lord to use Hades with the understanding of it's original meaning.


Thanks,

Marques

[daywalker]

Hello everyone,
I've been reading LOF again as I always do, but this time I can't get away from the section on hell;starting with XVI part C.
The history of paganism is mind boggling, and absolutely overwhelming that has stirred a hunger in me to do further studies of which I started last night.
Hades and Sheol being pagan to the core has me confused as to why Jesus used these words, or did He? What word was used back in that time for grave, or where they put their dead? I know tomb is one of them, but Hades and Sheol are a pagan god or pagan place.
I'm missing something here, but can't quite put my finger on it.
Even the word amen was a pagan god during the 400 years of the Jews in slavery to Egypt. The meaning has been changed by the Jews to what we believe it to be what it is today, but Its in the scriptures many times.
  I can't keep from being suspicious about these words being used in scriptures. Is this a mystery, or could it be another one of those things that doesn't belong in the bible?
Too many thoughts coming at me right now with this so I'll try to stay focused at first on just hades and sheol. Why are these words capitalized, and why did Jesus use pagan words to describe the grave?
Thanks in advance. In the mean time I'll continue to study and research.

Roy

Hello Roy,

There are many words that the Pagans used for naming gods and mythological places; that doesn't mean the words themselves are Pagan. Take the word GOD for instance...

The Greeks word for god is THEOS.
The Hebrew word for god is ELOHIM.

What did the Pagans call their gods in Hebrew? ELOHIM!
What did the Pagans call their gods in Greek? THEOS!

What do English-speaking Pagans call their gods? GOD!


Does that mean we cannot use the words Theos, Elohim, or God, in reference to Our God? Of course not!


The words Hades and Sheol mean "UNseen" or "IMperceptible". The fact that Pagans use these words in reference to their Mythological Place of the Underworld does not change the definitions of the words themselves; nor does it mean that we cannot use them in accord with their PROPER MEANING...


Hope this helps,

Daywalker

[Extol]

Excellent point, Daywalker!
Thanks.

[Roy Martin]

Thank you Ark, I know and understand your not trying to discourage me. I consider you to be very knowledgeable and concerning for others in doing your best to help.
I will except your advice of caution which I feel is my middle name, or just a part of me since its been with me for seems like a life time.
Thanks for your time.

Roy

[Roy Martin]

Thanks Daywalker,
 Its not a thought that I think Jesus used these words out of place, or the purpose He had for them.
Its the proper meaning that I'm looking for. I'm simply paying attention to every word and wanting understanding of something that even Ray suggested we should study.
I've read all of the LOF a few times, some parts more than others, but this time I just happen to get serious in installment XVI  all parts. I'm still studying and re-reading very slowly word for word. Its very interesting with volumes of truth, of this I have no doubt, but I want to understand it thoroughly.
Ark said all the answers are in the LOF. Perhaps I should continue studying and digesting rather than what some might think to be looking for a quick fix. I think maybe I'm not ready to be asking or bringing this question to the forum just yet. I feel I should also say that my interest in this topic isn't in any form of opposition to Rays teachings.
Thank you daywalker.

Roy

[F@lgn0n]

Thanks, Marques

People's understanding & interpretation of Sheol/Hades is what changed

for the Lord to use Hades with the understanding of it's original meaning.

(Emphasis Mine)

OK - I guess that would make more sense (to me at least) - but isn't there still the problem of peoples' perception of that word and it's meaning to them, as you said:

"People's understanding & interpretation of Sheol/Hades is what changed"

But then, as Daywalker said:

The words Hades and Sheol mean "UNseen" or "IMperceptible". The fact that Pagans use these words in reference to their Mythological Place of the Underworld does not change the definitions of the words themselves; nor does it mean that we cannot use them in accord with their PROPER MEANING...

Clears it up still further (for me anyway)

So then what I was "not seeing", was simply the result of the jaded concept of the word that I had. I was reading that word and attributing to it the idea of the "underworld" with all these 'not-quite-dead' souls floating around in it (which is what I thought the people of the time thought when they heard that word...)

If the people in Judea thought of Hades as simply meaning: "That place where a person is no more" ... then the remark Jesus made about Capernaum make sense again...

And, for me, all confusion is pretty much - cleared up

Peace.

[Roy Martin]

Here's what threw me off.
Installment XVI—HELL: Part C
THE SIN OF A MAN BORN BLIND:

    "And as Jesus passed by, He saw a man which was blind from his birth. And His disciples asked Him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind?" (John 9:1-2)

What? How, pray tell, could this blind man be responsible for his own blindness when we are plainly told that he was born blind? Not only did the disciples believe the pagan doctrine that the soul is immortal, but they believed that souls could transmigrate from one body to another body.

The idea that the disciples are presenting to Jesus is the pagan doctrine known today as "The transmigration of souls." This doctrine teaches that souls do not just live on, as in "immortal" after death, in some fabled hellhole of eternal torture, or some heaven on a rock in outer space, but rather that at death, the immortal soul migrates to inhabit the body of another person about to born into the world.

Many in the world today continue to believe in reincarnation and the transmigration of souls. There are some pagans who believe that the souls of the dead can also reappear in the life of a pig, snake, nor some other animal.

Seriously, why would Christ's disciples believe that a man could have sinned before he was ever born?

But what is even more remarkable is the fact that Jesus did not correct them, but rather went along with and acquiesced to their pagan notions. Jesus did not demean their foolish statement or their foolish belief, but countered with:

    "Neither has this man sinned, nor his parents..." (John 9:3).

Jesus spoke the truth, for truly this man had not sinned (however, Jesus did not inform them that it would have been impossible for him to sin before he was born). But Jesus did not expose this pagan heresy to His disciples at this time. For what possible reason would Jesus want to keep His own disciples deceived?

BEELZEBUB—Lord of the Flies:

    "But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, This fellow does not cast out devils, but by BEELZEBUB the prince of the devils [ruler of the demons]" (Matt. 12:24).

Did Jesus believe in this mythological god of the pagans? Notice how Jesus answered these Pharisees:

    "And if I by Beelzebub cast out devils, by whom do your children cast them out?" (Verse 27).

Some might think that Jesus is conceding that He indeed believed in this Beelzebub, Lord of the Flies. How foolish. Jesus did not believe that pagan gods were real.

Notice what Strong's says about Beelzebub:

    Beelzeboul beh-el-zeb-ool' Of Chaldee origin (by parody upon [H1176]); dung god; Beelzebul, a name of Satan: - Beelzebub.

The Hebrew #1176 is Baal-Zebub which means "Lord of the fly." And as flies gather around dung, the Jews sarcastically referred to this deity of the Ekronites as the "god of dung," or "the dung god."

Did Jesus really believe that there is such a god as this Beelzebub, god of dung?

Of course He didn't, but neither did He expose this pagan heresy to the Pharisees either.

REINCARNATION/TRANSMIGRATION OF SOULS:

On another occasion:

    "When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, He asked His disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am? And they said, Some say that You are John the Baptist: some, Elijah; and others, Jeremiah, or one of the prophets" (Matt. 16:13-14).

Some even thought that He might be John the Baptist, which is really strange, seeing that Jesus was already the same age as John, when John was beheaded.

Did Jesus Christ believe in reincarnation and the transmigration of immortal souls? Where did this teaching come from, and why does Jesus make reference to it? Why didn't Jesus expose this pagan heresy to His disciples instead of going along with their false statements?

PARABLES - THE RICH MAN IN HELL/HADES:

    "And in hell [Gk: 'hades'] he [the Rich man] lift up his eyes, being in torment, and sees Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom" (Luke 16:23).

The Egyptians called their place of punishment in the underworld, amenti. When the Greeks borrowed most of the Egyptian myths surrounding this place called amenti, they called it by the name hades.

Thomas Thayer supports Professor Stuart, Greppo's Essay, and Spineto, that: "The Amenti of the Egyptians originated the classic fables of Hades and Tartarus." (Doctrine of Eternal Punishment, Chapt. 3, P. 7).

Did Jesus believe that when people die, they are consciously alive and tormented in the pagan hell of the Greeks named after their pagan god, hades?

Why would Jesus use pagan religious doctrines and beliefs to teach spiritual truths of God? Haven't these things deceived the Church and caused the many different denominations of Christendom? Yes, of course they have, and so have all the parables which Jesus taught that virtually no Church understands. The Church does not even understand the few parables that Jesus explained!

How many theologians believe and understand that all the parables are the same parable? Tis true:

    "And He [Jesus] said unto them, Know you not this parable? And how then shall you know all parables? (Mark 4:13).

All parables are the same parable. I know: it boggles the mind. It takes the Spirit of God to understand these spiritual teachings.

And just as when Jesus said: "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up," no one understands what He meant until it was fulfilled. Everyone thought he meant the literal physical stone temple rather than His own body.

Likewise, only the "Chosen few" can understand the parables as they are fulfilled in their own lives, generation by generation, until the parables are fulfilled.

The Jews of Jesus' day learned these pagan teachings referred to above, plus many more, but from where did they learn them? For a fact they did not learn them from Moses, the Prophets, or Hebrew Scriptures. Who taught these pagan doctrines? Can we trace back such doctrines as "the immortality of the soul," "reincarnation," "consciousness and everlasting punishment after death?" Yes, we can.

EGYPT—THE GRANDSON OF NOAH

The Scriptural origin of Egypt is extremely easy to trace, though don't expect many in the secular world to agree with this:

    "The sons of Noah, Shem, Ham, and Japheth" (Gen. 10:1).

    "And the sons of Ham, Cush, and Mizraim, and Phut, and Canaan" (Gen. 10:6).

STRONG'S HEBREW DICTIONARY:

    "H4714 Dual of H4693; Mitsrajim, that is, Upper and Lower Egypt: - Egypt, Egyptians, Mizraim."

There it is: "Mizraim," Noah's grandson through his son Ham is EGYPT.

Egypt is mentioned from Genesis to Revelation--558 times (more than any other nation excepting Israel). This statistic alone should speak volumes to us regarding the importance of Egypt in God's plan for humankind. It behooves us to learn more about the nation of Egypt, its history, its culture, and its religion. It has everything to do with understanding the many unscriptural doctrines of the Christian Church.

BIBLICAL CHRONOLOGY

In this Installment on hell, I want to take you back to the beginning of things as far as possible. The main object I have in mind is to prove beyond a shadow of a doubt that the teaching of life immediately following death, the immortality of the soul, and the teaching of a hell wherein the wicked are punished and/or tortured endlessly, are all inventions of the ancient pagans, centuries before the people of Israel began to believe and teach these doctrines, or even before Israel existed.

Peace
Roy

[mharrell08]

Here's what threw me off.

Which statement caused such confusion?

Jesus spoke the truth, for truly this man had not sinned (however, Jesus did not inform them that it would have been impossible for him to sin before he was born). But Jesus did not expose this pagan heresy to His disciples at this time. For what possible reason would Jesus want to keep His own disciples deceived?

Did Jesus really believe that there is such a god as this Beelzebub, god of dung?

Of course He didn't, but neither did He expose this pagan heresy to the Pharisees either.

Did Jesus Christ believe in reincarnation and the transmigration of immortal souls? Where did this teaching come from, and why does Jesus make reference to it? Why didn't Jesus expose this pagan heresy to His disciples instead of going along with their false statements?

Did Jesus believe that when people die, they are consciously alive and tormented in the pagan hell of the Greeks named after their pagan god, hades?

Why would Jesus use pagan religious doctrines and beliefs to teach spiritual truths of God? Haven't these things deceived the Church and caused the many different denominations of Christendom? Yes, of course they have, and so have all the parables which Jesus taught that virtually no Church understands. The Church does not even understand the few parables that Jesus explained!

How many theologians believe and understand that all the parables are the same parable? Tis true:

    "And He [Jesus] said unto them, Know you not this parable? And how then shall you know all parables? (Mark 4:13).

All parables are the same parable. I know: it boggles the mind. It takes the Spirit of God to understand these spiritual teachings.

And just as when Jesus said: "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up," no one understands what He meant until it was fulfilled. Everyone thought he meant the literal physical stone temple rather than His own body.

Likewise, only the "Chosen few" can understand the parables as they are fulfilled in their own lives, generation by generation, until the parables are fulfilled.

The Jews of Jesus' day learned these pagan teachings referred to above, plus many more, but from where did they learn them? For a fact they did not learn them from Moses, the Prophets, or Hebrew Scriptures.

Hey Roy,

I highlighted a few points to help...but if you can, please explain what statement exactly is confusing you.


Hope this helps,

Marques

[Roy Martin]

Marques, I was so busy with all of it that I didn't notice this part;
But Jesus did not expose this pagan heresy to His disciples at this time. I'll try to find when He exposed it to them.

Thank you.

Roy

I'm sorry but all of it was confusing that Jesus knew the disciples were asking questions and making statements based on pagan beliefs. They obviously believed hades and sheol to be not just a grave, but some how I have never noticed in scripture where He corrected them. Was it after they were converted, being that they never understood anything He said until conversion?

[mharrell08]

I'm sorry but all of it was confusing that Jesus knew the disciples were asking questions and making statements based on pagan beliefs. They obviously believed hades and sheol to be not just a grave, but some how I have never noticed in scripture where He corrected them. Was it after they were converted, being that they never understood anything He said until conversion?

Yes, after their conversion began:

John 16:13  Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come

Luke 24:44-45  He [Jesus] said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me. Then opened He their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,


Marques

[daywalker]

Thought this would help clear things up further...


http://bible-truths.com/kennedy2.htm


TV ANALOGY

Here is an analogy that is applicable and easy to understand: God's spirit gives life to the body. Only in life does a man have consciousness or sensation. When God takes back His spirit, the body and soul are dead.

Picture a TV console as representing the human BODY with all its intricate circuitry and components.
Now picture ELECTRICITY as the invisible, powerful force representing God's life-giving SPIRIT.

Picture the blank PICTURE TUBE as representing the SOUL.

Without the electricity (God's spirit), the TV and picture tube (body and soul) are dead. All the time I hear preachers talking about our souls and our spirits as if they were one and the same. Soul and spirit are not one and the same.

Next plug in the electricity (God's spirit). The TV comes to life, and we see the picture tube (soul) animated. We see color, sound, dancing, singing, talking, intelligent conversations, all live via satellite. The dead TV becomes a living, visible, animated, intelligent entity-"Soul." But notice very carefully, the Soul (the animated picture in the TV tube) is not one of the original components. It is not a component in and by itself, but is rather the result of two other vital components, Body and Spirit (the TV console and electricity).

At bedtime I sometimes tell my daughter to give the TV a rest. When one turns off the "on/off" switch the TV goes to "sleep." The power light is still on, but the TV is blank and silent.

But now, pull the plug and take away the electricity (spirit) and what happens to the TV console (body)? It dies. It's just a box of circuits. Not even the power light is on anymore. If left unplugged it will, in time, decay and return to the dust of the ground.

And what happens to the colorful animated picture on the screen (soul) when we take away the electricity (spirit)? Want the real answer? Ask a child. Let several children watch TV together, then pull the plug and ask them where the picture went? A child will shrug his shoulders or say "I don't know" or say "It disappeared." Guess what? He is Scripturally correct on all three counts.

Without spirit there is no life and no consciousness. Without power a TV has no life and no animated picture. It's dead.

If you were to ask an ancient Hebrew person what happens to the soul (the thinking, feeling, animated, sentient personality of a man) at death, he would shrug his shoulders or say "who knows" or just say "it disappears." That's what "Sheol" meant to the Hebrews. It was a question mark. And the Greeks had their word for the same idea (Hades-the UNSEEN, the IMPERCEPTIBLE), and hades and sheol are synonymous in Scripture (Ps 16:10 & Acts 2:27).

There is one more profound Scriptural truth that is also perfectly analogous to the operation of a TV, and that is this: Picture God's Throne as the Broadcast Headquarters. The TV picture Tube, by itself, is not the source or originator of the picture it portrays on the screen. It is a channel for the signal transmitted from the TV Station and Tower. It can only manifest and portray on its screen that which is sent from the source [God]. And often the source [God] uses intermediaries like satellites [Angels] to relay the signals.

In Scripture, death is called a "return" [Heb. shub]. Before we were born we had no body, no soul, and no perception of any kind. At birth God gave us a body, implanted to us His spirit, which gives the body perception (through the brain and the five senses). At death, we [shub] RETURN. The reversal of what happened at birth. The spirit returns to God (Ecc. 12:7), the body returns to the dust (all the elements of man's body are found in the ground or earth) (Job 10:9, Ecc. 3:18-21), and the soul returns to no perception again (the imperceptible or unseen-hades) (Acts 2:27 and Psalm 49:15). This is what the Scriptures very plainly teach: where all that man "is" came from, that's where all that man "is" returns to.



Daywalker