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Author Topic: Greek Words Defined & Usage  (Read 14303 times)

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Samson

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Greek Words Defined & Usage
« on: May 24, 2010, 08:54:44 PM »

Hi Forum,

             For the last couple of weeks, I've been preparing a New Thread requiring me to go through mostly all of Ray's Articles, looking up Words in my Hebrew/Greek Bible Dictionary and selecting Scriptures as examples where these Greek Words are used in Scripture. So, below you'll find a list of Greek Words, their definitions and in some cases Hebrew Words incorporated in the explanation. Located below each Greek Word and it's definitions you'll see excerpt's from Rays Articles to support the information. Most of these Greek Words are ones we commonly come across when reading Ray's Articles.

            Anyone that has any other Words to add to the List, any comments, Scriptural examples, feel free to make your Post(s). This is an exercise to help us recall meanings of words sharpening Our Greek vocabulary with the help of Ray's explanations of how these words should be understood. This is by no means a complete List. I used an antiquated way in my research; Dictionaries, Bibles and Copy and Paste of Ray's material. Also Scriptural examples are only paraphrased due to time contraints.

1) Aion, Aions & Aionios: Aion = An Age; Aions= Ages; Aionios= Eonian, sometimes translated Age-Abiding or Age-lasting, but means " pertaining to the Ages;" never means Endless. Aion is sometimes incorrectly translated as World(GK-Kosmos); Ages is often incorrectly translated as Forever and Eonian is almost always incorrectly translated as Eternal or Everlasting.

Matt. 24:3(" the end of the AGE ")
Matt. 25:46 ( Eonian Chastisement)
Rev. 20:10 ("unto the AGES of AGES")

The New Testament in Modern Speech, by Dr. R. F. Weymouth: Eternal: Greek: "aeonion," i.e., "of the ages." Etymologically this adjective, like others similarly formed, does not signify "during," but "belong to" the aeons or ages."

The Interpreter’s Dictionry of the Bible (vol. IV, p. 643): Time: The O.T. and the N.T. are not acquainted with the conception of eternity as timelessness. The O.T. has not developed a special term for "eternity." The word aion originally meant "vital force," "life," then "age," "lifetime."

Elliot’s Commentary on the Whole Bible (Matt. 25:46(. Everlasting punishment--life eternal. The two adjectives represent the same Greek word, aionios—it must be admitted that the Greek word which is rendered "eternal" does not, in itself, involve endlessness, but rather, duration, whether through an age or succession of ages, and that it is therefore applied in the N.T. to periods of time that have had both a beginning and ending (Rom. 16:25).

Hasting’s Dictionary of the New Testament (Vol. I, p. 542, art. Christ and the Gospels): Eternity. There is no word either in the O.T. Hebrew or the N.T. Greek to express the abstract idea of eternity. (Vol. III, p. 369): Eternal, everlasting—nonetheless "eternal" is misleading, inasmuch as it has come in the English to connote the idea of "endlessly existing," and thus to be practically a synonym for "everlasting." But this is not an adequate rendering of aionios which varies in meaning with the variations of the noun aion from which it comes. (p. 370):

The chronoios aioniois moreover, are not to be thought of as stretching backward everlastingly, as it is proved by the pro chronon aionion of II Tim. 1:9; Titus. 1:2. (Note: pro chronon aionion means "BEFORE times eonian." Since this Scripture tells us that there was time "before" eonian, eionian cannot possibly mean eternal, for nothing can be "before" eternity.)

The large Catholic Bible dictionary, The Encyclopedic Dictionary of the Bible (p. 693): ETERNITY: The Bible hardly speaks of eternity in the philosophical sense of infinite duration without beginning or end. The Hebrew word olam, which is used alone (Ps. 61:8; etc.) or with various prepositions (Gen. 3:22; etc.) in contexts where it is traditionally translated as ‘forever,’ means in itself no more than ‘for an indefinitely long period." Thus me olam does not mean ‘from eternity’ but ‘of old’ Gen. 6:4; etc.). In the N.T. aion is used as the equivalent of olam. (Note: even the Catholic translators of The Jerusalem Bible and The New American Bible have failed to heed the scholarship of their own Catholic authorities.)

Dr. R. F. Weymouth, a translator who was adept in Greek, states in The New Testament in Modern Speech (p. 657), Eternal, Greek aeonion, i.e., of the ages: Etymologically this adjective, like others similarly formed does not signify, "during" but "belonging to" the aeons or ages.

Dr. Marvin Vincent, Word Studies of the New Testament (Vol. IV, p. 59). The adjective aionios in like manner carries the idea of time. Neither the noun nor the adjective in themselves carries the sense of "endless" or "everlasting.’ Anionios means enduring through or pertaining to a period of time.

 

Comment: Let me try this one more time. God created the eons of time, therefore, He is "the eonian God." God is working out His plan of salvation for the entire human race within the confines of these "eonian times." The Scriptures know nothing of "eternity." They didn’t even have a word for the concept. Redemption is only one of many things that God will accomplish in the eons. There are no promises, no prophecies, no anything, mentioned in Scripture that goes beyond the conclusion of the eons. After the eons are over, then what? What will we do? IT DOESN’T SAY. We know of only two things that are taught in reference to anything beyond the eons [1] we will all have IMMORTALITY [we will never die]. The word itself has nothing to do with "time," but rather ‘death-less-ness, and [2] God will be ALL IN ALL. That’s it! Beyond these, we must trust God in faith regarding what eternity holds for us.

Now for one of the most important truths of all regarding this word "aionios." When God says that He is "the EONIAN God," He is stating a FACT. That Jesus procured "EONIAN redemption" for us, is a statement of FACT. Neither "eonian God" nor "eonian redemption" are statements of LIMITATION. And to suggest that they are statements of limitation is to pervert the Scriptures—they neither say nor insinuate any such thing.

 

In the Anglo-Saxon Gospels a thousand years ago, the equivalent for the Greek word aion was the old English word ece, which was similar in meaning to aion, which is a period of time.. The word "eternal" was completely unknown (in any of the old English Bibles), before the Renaissance.

Turning to the Old Testament Hebrew will not solve your dilemma either. The Old Testament Hebrew has the word "olam" (this is the Hebrew equivalent of "aion"), which is often translated in the Authorized Version as "everlasting." This word clearly does not mean everlasting. I will give you just one conclusive proof Scripture:

Psa. 73:12--"Behold, these are the ungodly, who prosper in the world; they increase in riches."

The word translated "world" is olam which they translate "everlasting" in dozens of other places. Clearly the "ungodly" do not prosper for "eternity" or "everlasting."

"It may be laid down as a rule that no language had, for some time after the first century A.D., any term to denote eternity." (Whence Eternity?, By: Alexander Thomson, p. 5). That's a telling statement. Not only doesn't the Hebrew or Greek Scriptures use a word meaning "eternity" or "endless time" in the original texts, it was impossible for them to do so. The Hebrew and Greek Languages had no word that meant "endless time" or "eternity." And further, no one has ever found such a word in ANY LANGUAGE before the second century to denote "endless time" or "eternity."

The facts regarding the temporary duration of the eons are contained in the Scriptures themselves. This demolishes the eternal torment in Hell heresy.

I quote once again from Whence Eternity? "In the year 540, Justinian made arrangements for the calling together of the famous local council of four years later. ... In particular, he wished it made very plain that the life of the saints was to be everlasting, and that the doom of the lost was to be likewise. Yet he did not argue that the word eonian meant everlasting. Nor did he claim that the word eonian had hitherto been misunderstood ... Origen, who exulted in the truth of the reconciliation of the universe, definitely used the word eonian with reference to fire and doom as meaning a limited time. But writing in the very expressive Greek language, Justinian says, 'The holy church of Christ teaches an ENDLESS eonian (ateleutetos aionios) life for the just, and ENDLESS (ateleutetos) punishment for the wicked.' Justinian knew quite well that by itself eonian DID NOT signify endless, and he therefore added a word the meaning of which is quite unequivocal, a word not found in the Scriptures. This letter of Justinian, which is still in existence, ought to convince anyone who is in doubt, regarding the true scriptural meaning of the word eonian. ... It was not until the year 696, at Constantinople, that a Council publicly condemned this doctrine of Origen [reconciliation of all] for the first time, the glorious teaching [reconciliation] being called 'DRUNKEN RAVINGS as to the future life of the dead." [Emphasis mine], page 19.

2) Kosmos: World, means order or arrangement of things, the present condition of Human affairs.1John. 2:15( Do not love the WORLD or the things in the WORLD)

3) Kolasin: Chastisement, Root Word is Kolos and literally means "to prune" The Correction is with a view to helping the offender. Usually incorrectly rendered Punishment.Matt. 25:46 (Eonian Chastisement)4) Timoria: Punishment or Penalty; It means the vindictive character of punishment that only satisfies the inflictor of it. Acts. 4:21 ( Find no way of punishing them).
PUNISHING VS. CHASTENINGWhile considering all of the hellfire and brimstone material disseminated by Christian teachers, preachers, writers, and educators around the world, just how many hundreds of times do you suppose the word "punishment" is used in the entire New Testament with regards to sinners? Hundreds? Would you believe less than fifty? Would you believe less than ten? Would you believe ONCE? That’s right, the answer is one time.

"Of how much more punishment [Gk: timoria], suppose you, shall he be thought worthy, who has trodden under foot the Son of God, and has counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and has done despite unto the Spirit of grace?" (Heb. 10:29).

I can assure you that those who have committed the above crime towards the Lord are few indeed. Most of humanity that will be judged in the lake of fire have NEVER EVEN HEARD of Jesus Christ, let alone, "trodden underfoot the Son of God, and counted the blood of the covenant, an UNHOLY thing, and done DESPITE unto the Spirit of grace." Most have never even heard of such sins, let alone committed them.

This is a most powerful Scripture to be sure, but it does not speak of "eternal" punishment, and it is the ONLY SCRIPTURE IN THE ENTIRETY OF THE NEW TESTAMENT that uses the word "punishment" with reference to punishing sinners!

There are three other places in the KJV that the word "punish" or "punished" is used correctly. They are Acts 4:21; 22:5; and 26:11 where it Saul (later Paul) is punishing not sinners, but members of the church, the followers of Christ.

II Thes. 1:9 should be translated, "eonian extermination" and not "punished ... everlasting."

II Peter 2:4 & 9 should both be "chastening" as it is the same Greek word kolazo and not timoria which means punish.

The KJV uses "punished" in verse nine, which should be "chasten," and ironically it doesn’t even translate the Greek word kolazo (chasten) in verse four -- the KJV translators left it out completely. I suppose the translators thought that it was redundant to say, "chastening judging." But then again, they didn’t bother to look at II Cor. 2:6 which should read "rebuke" (another Greek word, epitimia), not "punish."

And lastly, I Pet. 2:14 should read "vengeance" ( still another Greek word, kdikesise), and not punishment.

So in the case of "punishment" we have but ONE Scripture to deal with, and we will deal with it.

This next fact doesn’t necessarily "prove" anything, it’s just the way my mind works. Jesus Christ said:

"O generation of vipers, how can you, being evil, speak good things? For out of the ABUNDANCE of the heart the MOUTH SPEAKS" (Mat. 12:34).

I think we all understand that statement: What is heaviest and most dominant on our heart is what we talk about the most.

Now then, my observation. We learned of the one time that punishment is used in reference to sinners. Would you all be interested in knowing how many times the opposite of punishment is used? Okay, the word "mercy" (-ies, -iful) is found in the Bible over THREE HUNDRED AND THIRTY times! Could it be that the "abundance of God’s heart" consists of many more MERCIES than it does of vengeance and punishment?

[color=black]5) Apollumi: Lose, Lost, Destroy, Ruin.
    Matt. 10:28 ( Fear Him who is able to DESTROY
)
    Matt. 18:11 ( Came to Save that which was LOST)[/
color]
Not even one, zero, not some, not any, not at all any ) should perish (Gk. apollumi - perish, destroy, lose) but that all (Gk. Pas - all, as many as.  We can take that out, forget the word all, you don‘t need it.  Put ‘that they,’ who? Anybody who doesn’t come under the category of none) should come to repentance.”

Are you following this?  This is all based on the negative.  How many that don’t come under the category of none, not any, not any man, not any woman, not any thing, none whatsoever, nothing.  Now if you are not in that category, you are going to come to repentance and not have a destiny of perishing or perished - apollumi.  How many is that?  Everyone does not come under the mē, the none, so it includes everyone.  Therefore the “all” in that verse is everyone who is not included in the “any,” and that’s EVERYONE!

Now we understand that all humanity is in a state of ‘apollumi,’ sometimes.  Because apollumi meaning destroy, perish or lose.  All mankind are lost, so it’s not talking about in this lifetime that no one will ever be destroyed or die or be perished or not be spiritually lost, as their destiny, because this life time they do.  But ultimately our destiny for everyone, is to be unperished or lost.  None, because the negative here proves it.  If there is even one that comes under that category, it can’t come under that category, because that category doesn’t include anyone, it’s a negative, no one.  He’s not willing that anyone, no one be perishing or lost forever.  There again the apollumi, Christ said I’ve come to save those that are apollumi.  When the scripture say, “the Lord is not slack,”  is there any room for slackness?  No.  A little slackness?  No.  No slackness at all.  When He says, “…is not willing that any should perish,”  it proves the positive side.  The negative proves the positive.

6) Oleuthros: Destruction, Ruin; the affect upon the physical condition of a person for the purpose of their Spiritual benefit. 1Cor. 5:5 ( DESTRUCTION of the flesh so the spirit may be saved)
1Thess. 5:3 ( Suddenly upon them cometh DESTRUCTION.)

7) Anastasis: Resurrection; means a standing up again. Acts. 24:15 (Resurrection of the just and unjust).
8) Athanasia: Immortality; literally means Deathlessness. 1Cor. 15:55( This Mortal has put on Immortality)
9) Hades: the unseen, imperceptible. Equivalent to the Hebrew Word Sheol. Both usually mistranslated Hell and rendered incorrectly as Grave at 1Cor. 15:55 ( O Hades, where is your victory) to fool people in believing we can't have victory over Hades(Hell).

10) Gehenna: Valley of the Son of Hinnom, It was a garbage dump located to the SW of the Walls of Jerusalem in the valley of Kidron where the refuse of the city was thrown and consumed by fire and Maggots. The place where Judean Kings Ahaz and Manasseh engaged in Idolatrous worship. " It was a thing that I had not commanded and that did not come up in my heart." (Jer. 7:31, 32-35) The literally physical fires of Gehenna burned out long ago. Not a literal place of endless punishment. Gehenna is usually mistranslated into Hell, Hell fire and Fiery Hell.

Matt. 10:28 (Destroy both body and soul in gehenna)
James. 3: 6 ( Tongue set on fire by Gehenna)

11) Taphos: A Grave, Tomb, A place for burial. Matt. 28:1( The other Mary came to see the Tomb)

DEFINING THE GREEK WORD "HADES"Hades IS sheol. Hades is the Greek translation in the New Testament when an Old Testament Hebrew verse is quoted containing the word "sheol." Here is an example:Acts 2:27--"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell [Gk: hades], neither wilt thou suffer Your Holy One to see corruption" 
This is a quotation of Psalm 16:10:
"For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell [Heb: sheol]; neither wilt thou suffer Your Holy One to see corruption."

So the Holy Spirit inspired the New Testament writers to translate the Hebrew word sheol into the Greek word hades. Therefore, sheol IS hades and hades IS sheol, and this is precisely how Dr. Strong defines them:

Strong's Hebrew Dictionary: #7585, "sheol, hades or the world of the dead."

Technically, I could end our study on the meaning of hades right here. I have already written two Installments on sheol in which we saw that sheol is the state of the dead--not hell, not even the grave, but the state of the dead. And as sheol IS hades, hades cannot take on any greater or opposing meaning that is not contained in an older parent language word "sheol."

No matter how fanciful one's ideas may be regarding the use of the word hades in the New Testament, it does not take on the meaning of consciousness, judging, torture, chastisement, annihilation, or eternity. It is the UNSEEN, IMPERCEPTIBLE, UNCONSCIOUS STATE OF THE DEAD called sheol throughout the Old Testament Scriptures.

 

No, Gehenna is where the fire is not quenched and the worms don't die. It's a burning, city garbage dump. No one quenches the fire. If someone quenched it, it would loose its useful purpose, namely to burn up the garbage, offal, and any criminals that are thrown there. The worms don't die, because there is plenty to eat and keep them breeding. When nothing more is thrown into the fire, it will go out. It won't need to be quenched. When the food supply runs out the worms will die. How do I know that? Because the Valley of Hinnom (south of Jerusalem) was burning in Christ's day with many worms and now the fire is gone and the worms are gone.. It is no longer used for that purpose.

 

"No, there is no consciousness in Hell, and there is no consciousness in hades which is translated into the English word "hell." Ecc. 9:10 says, " ... in the grave." "Grave" in this verse is translated from the Hebrew word sheol (which means the unseen or imperceptible). When an Old Testament Scripture is quoted in the New Testament, they translate sheol into hades. So is there "consciousness" in the place sheol in the O.T.? Absolutely not. " ... there is NO WORK, nor DEVICE, nor KNOWLEDGE, nor WISDOM, in the grave [the Hebrew translated "grave" in this verse is sheol, which is synonymous with the Gk. hades] where you go" (Ecc. 9:10). According to God's Word, not your word, Mr. Hagee, when a person dies and returns to his earth, does he still have conscious thoughts? GOD'S answer: "His spirit goes forth, he returns to his earth, in that very day his thoughts PERISH" (Psalm 146: 3-4).

 

THERE AIN’T NO HELL IN THE MANUSCRIPTS

Let’s consider the use of the word "hell" in Scripture. The Jewish Publications avoid the word "hell" in their translating. And just maybe Jewish scholars understand their own language better than others. In the KJV we regretfully still read "hell" in a number of Old Testament Scriptures:

"The wicked shall be turned into hell [Hebrew: sheol], and all the nations that forget God" (Psalm 9:17).

Next from the most popular selling Bible today, The New International Version:

"The wicked return to the grave [Hebrew: sheol], all the nations that forget God."

Many modern English translations are dropping the word "hell," more and more from their translations. Why? Because it should have never been used in the first place, and honest scholars are beginning to see that clearly.

This is one area where the KJV translators are really inconsistent. The translators of the KJV translate the Hebrew word sheol, 31 times as, "hell." But ... BUT, did you know that they also translate this same word sheol, 31 times as, "grave?" Oh really? Yes, really! And 3 times, "pit." That looks like a toss of the coin, doesn’t it? Thirty-one, "hell" and thirty-one, "grave." Do you think that maybe that is how they determined which it should be—"heads for hell" and "tails for grave?" And maybe three times "pit" when they dropped the coin?

Now let me show you how you all can have greater wisdom than even the modern translators. The same New International Version that I quoted above has this in Luke 16:32:

"In hell, where he was in torment…"

But by the word hell there is a superior letter "c" indicating a marginal notation which says: "23 Greek Hades" I thank these translators for their partial honesty. Why "partial honesty?" Because hades is the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word sheol, which these same translators translated into the English word "grave" in Psalm 9:17 (and other places), but in Luke 16:23 they revert back to the unscriptural word "hell." By the way, the Holy Spirit inspired the Hebrew word sheol to be translated into the Greek word hades, so we know for sure that they are equivalents:

"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell [Gk: hades from Heb: sheol] neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption."

That, my friends, is a quotation from the Old Testament Hebrew Psalm 16:10. Therefore, hades and sheol are synonymous and should never be translated "hell."

                Unfortunately, I exceeded the number of characters allowed, so the second part will be on the following Post. KInd Regards, Samson.




 

 

 



« Last Edit: May 28, 2010, 12:14:03 PM by Samson »
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Samson

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #1 on: May 24, 2010, 08:57:04 PM »

Continuation of my initial thread, Part Two, Samson.

12)Krisis, Krino: Judgement, Judge, Hebrew-Mishpat; To pronounce an opinion concerning right or wrong, to set matters straight, Doing whats just and good. Gen. 18:25 (Shall the Judge of all the Earth do what is right).
 
"For if we would JUDGE [Gk: diakrino=THROUGH JUDGE, separate thoroughly, to withdraw, discern, judge] OURSELVES [members of the called-out House of God], we should not be judged [Gk: krino=judge, set right, decide, to try, condemn, punish]. But when we are judged [the same Greek word krino as used above with reference to judging the wicked world] we are CHASTENED of the Lord, that we should not be condemned [Gk: katakrino, an adverse sentence] with the world" (I Cor. 11:32).
Pay close attention to the three Greek words, diakrino, krino, and katakrino, used in this verse.
There is so much contained in this verse. There is a judgment now on God’s saints. We are judged by being "chastened of the Lord." What does that mean? "Chastened" is from the Greek word paideuo and here is what it means: "to train up a child, i.e. educate, or (by impl.) discipline (by punishment): -- chasten (-ise), instruct, learn, teach" (Strong’s Greek Dictionary p. 54).
Are you following this amazing use of words? You will now learn a marvelous truth of Scripture that is not being taught in any theological seminary that I am aware of anywhere in the whole world.
We are "judged" by God, and the vehicle that God uses to do this judging is "chastening." In other words, we are "judged" by God by being "trained up" like a child, by being "educated," by "discipline" involving "punishment," "instructed," by which we "learn," and all these "teach" us WHAT WE SHOULD BE.
There is no doubt that some of this chastening can be harsh, sorrowful, and painful. Much of it is not very pleasant and God admits as much to us. And it is not possible for one single son of God to avoid this chastisement! Let’s read it:
 
 
God "judges" us by "chastening" us! (I Cor. 11:32) "chasten," Greek: ‘paideuo’ #3811
God "graces" us by "teaching" us! (Titus 2:12) "teaching," Greek: ‘paideuo’ #3811

WOW! Do you even begin to understand what you have just read? Whether God "JUDGES" us (and later the wicked world), or "GRACES" us, He does it THE SAME WAY!!
"Judging" is CHASTENING (Strong’s #3811), and "gracing" is CHASTENING (Strong’s #3811). It is the SAME WORD!

13) Hamartia: Sin, means a mistake, regardless of the gravity, missing the mark.
     Rom. 3:23 (All have sinned)
     Rom. 5:12 ( Death through Sin)
14) Hilasmos: Propiation, An expiation whereby Sin is covered, remitted, expunged.
     1 John. 2:2 ( Propiation for our sins and the whole world)
But this word propitiation means atonement, starting back in the OT .  Propitiation is a atonement and it’s a covering for sin.  It covers sin.  Now if it covers sin, does it cover it for a while and then it gets out?   Well it did in Israel.  It covered it for how long?  One year, is all it covered.  The high priest went into the Holy of Holies and sprinkled the Ark of the Covenant with the blood and that was on the Day of Atonement, one time a year.  That was good for a whole year And guess what?  They had to do it again.  But then we read in Hebrews 7 that our High Priest, He entered into the Holy of Holies ONE time and that was good, just one time.  So this propitiation is a one time deal.  Notice it, it’s for not only our sins, but the sins of the whole world, all the inhabitants of the world.  It covers all the sins of the world. 
They would agree with that, because at least we have a scripture that the theologian would agree on, that that propitiation covers all sins.  But then they turn it into a lie by suggesting, only though IF you accept that propitiation.  It doesn’t actually cover all sin, only if you let it.  Is that what it says?  No!  That is not what it says, so let’s not be making a liar out of what Jesus Christ did.  He IS the propitiation for all sin and not just for our sins, the sins of the WHOLE world. 
Atonement is ‘kaphar’ - to cover, placate, conceal, appease, cleanse, disannul, forgive, be merciful, pardon away, purge away, reconcile.  Man those are powerful words, anyone of them is a powerful word.  When all the population of the whole world has their sins covered, placated, appeased, cleansed, disannulled, forgiven, piled on with mercy, pardoned, purged away and they are now reconciled to God, THEY’RE SAVED! 
So there is a scripture that PROVES all humanity will be saved, right there. 
Either He is the propitiation of the sins of the whole world or He’s not.  This says He IS.  Therefore all mankind must be saved or He’s not the propitiation for the sins of the WHOLE world.  Because then there would be sins of some people that are not covered and they’re going to go to hell and be in a state of spiritual death, which God is not pleased with, but tough toenails God can’t have what He pleases.  Nonsense!  It’s heresy, all of it’s heresy. 
When it says whole; we not only have world, being the population of the world, not the trees and stones.  It means the whole, ‘holos’ - whole or all, complete, altogether, every whit, throughout, that’s what whole means.  Whole never means half of or a part of.  The whole means the complete, the whole enchilada, the whole ball of wax, right.  That’s what Jesus is, if He doesn’t do it, then He isn’t the propitiation.  Well what does the scripture say?  Is He or isn’t He?  HE IS! 
1 John 4:14  And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Savior of the world.
Now it doesn’t have ‘whole’ there.  It means the inhabitants of the world.   So we don’t have the word whole there.  Actually I put this verse in before I realized I was just going to deal with the ‘whole world.’  But it doesn’t matter, is He the Savior of the world?  Is there anything in the Greek there that insinuates that He is only the potential or possible or is it emphatic?  HE IS!  He sent Him to BE the Savior of the world.
And He [Jesus] is the propitiation [Greek: hilasmos, signifies "an expiation, a means whereby sin is COVERED and remitted" Strong’, p. 121] for our sins: and not for ours only, but also FOR THE SINS OF THE WHOLE WORLD" (1 John 2:2).
It may come as a surprise to realize that Jesus started His work of propitiation
in a "lake"—the Lake of Galilee, and He will finish His work of propitiation in another lake, "the Lake of Fire."
In Romans 3:25 we read:
"Whom God has set forth to be a PROPITIATION through faith in His blood to declare His righteousness for the remission [passing over of] sins that are past, through the forbearance of God."
In Heb. 9:5 this same word hilcsterion (propitiatory) is used for the COVERING LID OF THE ARK. Jesus Christ IS the ark. When the disciples were "covered by the raging waves of the sea" Jesus Christ became their "covering," and (physically) SAVED THEM!
In Hebrew, "haven" comes from cowph, and it means "to COVER; a cove (as a sheltered bay, Strong’s Hebrew Dictionary p. 32).
 
REPENTANCE: "I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance" (Luke 5:32). Strong's #3341 metanoia--"compunction (for guilt), reversal." Metan(the noun) is from #3340, metanoeo (the verb), which means: "to perceive afterwards, implying change... the mind, the seat of moral reflection... hence signifies to change one's mind or purpose" (Vines Concise Dictionary of Bible Words.)
The very first word to humanity out of Jesus' mouth after being tempted by Satan in the wilderness was "repent..." (Matt. 4:17). And what does "repent" mean? It means to change. And what have I been teaching since we started bible-truths.com? That God is changing physical, carnal humanity into the spiritual Image of God. That's what our existence is all about. This is the purpose for humanity. This is the next goal in the plan of God. To make carnal, physical humanity into the Spiritual Image of God. It's all about change. God is going to change the entire human race. And once you understand this first word "repentance," you will understand the other spiritual and pious sounding words of Scripture. They all involve change-changing from what we are into what God isoia .


15) Porneia: Fornication, Immorality. Sexual relations outside the Marital bond which includes Pre-marital sex, Homosexuality, Beastiality, illicit sexual relations. Can refer to Spiritual Fornication.
Matt. 19:9( Divorces his wife, except on the grounds of fornication commits Adultery(Moikeia))
Rev. 14: 8 (Wine of the wrath of her fornication).
16) Arsenokoites: Sodomites, Homosexuals; literally means Liers with Males, one who lies with a male as with a female. 1Cor. 6:9 (Sodomites); 1Tim. 1:10 ( Sodomites).

THREE CATEGORIES OF PERVERTED SEX
"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators [Gk: paramours], nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate [Gk: catamites], nor abusers of themselves with mankind [Gk: sodomites] nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God" (I Cor. 6:9-10).
What are paramours, catamites, and sodomites?
paramours (King James, 'fornicators')-Strong's #4205 pornos "to sell, a male prostitute (as venal), a debauchee (libertine): fornicator, whoremonger."
prostitute: "one who solicits and accepts payment for sex" (American Heritage College Dictionary).venal: "capable of betraying honor, duty, or scruples for a price, corruptible" (AHCD).debauchee/debauchery: "to corrupt morally, to lead away from excellence or virtue, indulge in dissipation [lacking moral restraint, indulgence in sensual pleasure], orgies [unrestrained sexual activities],"libertine: "one without moral restraint" (AHCD)
catamites (King James, 'effeminate')-Strong's #3120 malakos "soft, fine clothing, a catamite, effeminate."catamite: "a boy who has a sexual relationship with a man" (AHCD).
effeminate: "having characteristics more often associated with women than a man" (AHCD).
sodomites (King James, 'abusers of themselves with mankind'-Strong's #733 arsenokoites "a sodomite, defile self with mankind."
The elements of the Greek word arsenokoites are "male-lier"-A male who lies with a male. "Male bed partners"--Wycliffe Bible Dictionary.


17) Theos: God or Mighty one; primarily means Arbiter, Disposer or Placer.
      John. 1:1 (The Word was with God(Ho-theos= The God))
      John. 1:18 ( The only begotten God(monogenes theos)= Only begotten).


Jesus IS God! True, but this fact does NOT make Him the FATHER! Let us always read and believe the Scriptures. The English word "God" is translated from the Greek word Theos which means PLACER or DISPOSER. ANYONE to whom the Father gives such an office of "placer or disposer" is a God! Notice what God says in Psalm 82:6,
"I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High."
Jesus explains this verse for us:
"Jesus answered them, ‘Is it not written in your law, that ‘I say you are gods’? If He said those were gods, to whom the word of God came [and the scripture can not be annulled], are you saying to Him Whom the Father hallows and dispatches into the world that You are blaspheming,’ seeing that I said, ‘Son of God am I’? If I am not doing My Father’s works, do not believe Me. Yet if I am doing them, and if ever you are not believing Me, be believing the works, that you may be knowing and believing that in Me is the Father, and I am in the Father."
JESUS CHRIST BY MEANS OF THE HOLY SPIRIT OF GOD WHICH HIS FATHER GAVE TO HIM IS THE COMFORTER. THE GREEK PROVES THAT CHRIST IS THE COMFORTER!
In the Greek, the "comforter" or consoler is translated from parakleetos. Now, is there any Scriptural proof that Jesus Christ is called "parakleetos?" Yes there is. In I John 2:1 we read:
"And if anyone should be sinning, we have an Entreater with the Father, Jesus Christ, the Just."
In the King James it says we have an "advocate" [with a small "a"]. King James ALWAYS capitalizes the Greek word "parakleetos," so why don’t they capitalize it here? You see, "advocate" or a better translation "Entreater" is translated from the GREEK WORD "parakleetos.
18) Logos: Word, Spokesman, used in reference to Jesus Christ, He's Gods Spokesman.
     John. 1:14 (The word became flesh)
19) Gennao: Born, Begin, Begotten, conceive. John. 1:18 ( only begotten God, mongenes Theos)
20) Prototokos: Firstborn. Col. 1:15 ( the image of the unseen God, Firstborn of all creation)

Well, I think that it's enough for me on this Thread, I had other Words that maybe some of the Forum members can elaborate on like: Pyskhe(Greek) & Nephesh(Hebrew) for Soul and Pneuma(Greek) and Ruahh(Hebrew) for Spirit. Looking forward to your input.
                             Kind Regards, Samson.




« Last Edit: May 28, 2010, 12:03:56 PM by Samson »
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jingle52

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #2 on: May 25, 2010, 03:27:38 PM »

Hello Samson,
I will limit myself to thanking you for this thread, I thoroughly enjoyed reading it!
God's Blessings to you and your wife.
Prudence
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Samson

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #3 on: May 25, 2010, 06:58:38 PM »

Hello again,

Since there are many misconceptions regarding the purpose of Fire by Christendom and they think of it in Physical terms in most cases in Scripture, below is another Word Ray expounds on for Our benefit.

21) Pur: translated Fire, whether it's literal physical or Spiritual, symbolizing something. Remember, Jesus said that " My words are Spirit " and the Physical is first than the Spiritual, The flesh profits nothing.

THE BELIEVER’S JUDGMENT BY FIRE

definition in Strong’s Concordance. In my Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance that I purchased over forty years ago, it has but one line after the Greek word pur. It states that pur is "fire" either (literal or figurative), fiery, lightning. That’s it. So when I purchased the NEW Strong’s Expanded Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible last week, I was pleasantly surprised to see the expanded definitions, especially with reference to this word "pur" -- FIRE. I learned the use of the word "fire" in Scripture the hard way -- I had to research.

We could easily spend twenty pages just commenting on the examples used in this expanded version of Strong’s. I won’t do that, but let’s take a brief look at a few enlightening items: First, we learn that this word can be, and is, used "figuratively." And in fact, the first five examples given in Strong’s ARE examples of figurative usage of the word fire. And of the 500+ times the word 'fire' is used in the Bible, hundreds of times the word 'fire' is used in a figurative or symbolic sense.
Well, yes, it does appear that there is a judgment on the house of God, but certainly not a judgment by FIRE, is there? Doesn’t God judge non-believers with fire, but not believers? This only sounds strange to you if you have never been taught the Scriptures.

"Beloved, think it NOT STRANGE concerning the fiery trial which is to try you, as though some STRANGE thing happened unto you" (I Pet. 4:12).

Peter makes it sound as though going through fiery trails is the norm rather than the exception. The New Testament is filled with the fiery trials of the Saints.

Now I hope that none will be offended at my next few statements, but if so, so be it. Unless God Almighty through the purging power of His FIERY SPIRIT, is BURNING OUT the lusts and passions and vanity and haughtiness and greed and self-righteousness and laziness and weakness and hypocrisy and wickedness and pride and materialism and cynicism and depravity and carnality in your life, then Jesus Christ is not choosing you to reign with Him as the Sons of God in the Kingdom of God to bring all Heaven and Earth to repentance and salvation!

And I will tell you on the authority of Jesus Christ and all the Holy Scriptures, that anyone who teaches and takes delight in thinking that God would ever torture anyone for all eternity, will NEVER BE IN THE KINGDOM OF GOD WITH SUCH AN ATTITUDE!

Such damnable character flaws of the mind and spirit are going to be burned out of us all! God will either BURN OUT these filthy impurities from our hearts and minds NOW, or He will BURN THEM OUT IN THE LAKE OF FIRE, but either way, make no mistake about it, THESE THINGS ARE COMING OUT!!!

JOHN THE BAPTIST: John the Baptist said that Jesus would be baptizing repentant believers with fire.

"I indeed baptize you with water unto REPENTANCE: but He that comes after me is mightier than I, Whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: He shall baptize you with the Holy Spirit, AND WITH FIRE" (Matt. 3:11).

JESUS CHRIST:

"For EVERY ONE [sinner and saint] shall be salted with FIRE" (Mark 9:49).

APOSTLE PETER:

"That the trial of your faith, being much more precious than of gold that perishes, though it [your faith] be TRIED IN THE FIRE, might be found unto praise and honour and glory at the appearing of Jesus Christ" (I Pet. 1:7).

APOSTLE PAUL:

"Every man’s work [including believers] shall be made manifest; for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed BY FIRE, and the FIRE shall try every man’s work of what sort it is" (I Cor. 3:13).

With such noble and august witnesses, does anyone deny that the repentant, converted, dedicated, believing Christian will escape being "revealed," tried," "salted," and "baptized" by FIRE? These Scriptures are undeniable! Whatever this "fire" is, it is going to be used ON EVERYONE. These four Scriptures have the believer specifically in view, but it says and includes "EVERYONE shall be salted with FIRE," and "EVERY MAN’S WORK ... shall be revealed by FIRE."

And there is absolutely NO DIFFERENCE when it comes to the non-believers:

"And I saw a great white throne ... And I saw the dead... and the dead were JUDGED... according to their WORKS... and they were judged EVERY MAN according to their WORKS" (Rev. 20:11-13).

And are these non-believers judged differently from believers who are "revealed, tried, salted and baptized IN FIRE?" Just HOW are these non-believers judged in the book of Revelation? How are the "...fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars..." JUDGED? Answer: "...In the lake WHICH BURNS WITH FIRE..." (Rev. 21:8)!

Is this "fire" in the book of Revelation DIFFERENT from the fire that tries the works of believers in the book of I Corinthians? NO. The word "fire" used in the four examples above concerning believers, is the SAME word "fire" used in the book of Revelation concerning non-believers:

STRONG’s Greek Dictionary of the New Testament, page 219, #4442, pur; a primary word; "fire" (literally OR FIGURATIVELY. Pur is used (besides its ordinary natural significance):

(1) of the holiness of God, which consumes all that is inconsistent therewith, Heb. 10:27; 12:29; cf. Rev. 1:14; 2:18; 10:1; 15:2; 19:12;

(1a) similarly of the holy angels as His ministers, Heb. 1:7;

(1b) in Rev. 3:18 it is SYMBOLIC of that which tries the faith of saints, PRODUCING WHAT WILL GLORIFY THE LORD;

(2) of the divine judgment, testing the deeds of believers, at the judgment seat of Christ I Cor. 3:13 and 15;

(3) of the fire of DIVINE JUDGMENT upon the REJECTERS of Christ, Matt. 3:11 (where a distinction is to be made between the baptism of the holy Spirit at Pentecost and the "fire" of divine retribution; Acts 2:3 could not refer to baptism); Lk. 3:16."

End of quotation, (All CAPS emphasis are mine).

I was quite amazed to see this broadened
I call your attention to the statement in Strong’s (1b) "In Rev. 3:18 it [fire] is SYMBOLIC, of that which tries the faith of saints, PRODUCING WHAT WILL GLORIFY THE LORD"! (CAPS emphasis mine).

I just love it when Christian Scholars will occasionally just absolutely "nail" a Scriptural Truth. Notice this beautiful and profound Scriptural Truth: The symbolic fire of Rev. 3:18 tries the faith of the saints, and PRODUCES what will GLORIFY THE LORD! ASTOUNDING!

Carefully note that it is not the "believer" who "produces" these glorious things, but it is the "SYMBOLIC FIRE" that produces them. And just Who is this "symbolic fire?" It is, of course, GOD -- "For OUR GOD IS A CONSUMING FIRE." (Heb. 12:29)!

Therefore it is GOD who "PRODUCES" qualities in the saints that will GLORIFY HIMSELF! God’s consuming SPIRITUAL fire (remember that "GOD IS SPIRIT" Jn. 4:24) does the "producing," not the saint,

"For HIS ACHIEVEMENT are we, being created in Christ Jesus..." (Eph. 2:10).

"Now what have you which you did not OBTAIN? Now if you OBTAINED it also [from GOD] why are you boasting as though [you are] not obtaining [it from God]?" (I Cor. 4:7 Concordant Literal New Testament).

"All is of God" (II Cor. 5:18).

"The One Who is operating ALL in accord with the counsel of HIS will" (Eph. 1:11).

Etc.

In statement (1) the editor of Strong’s cites seven more Scriptures that are used symbolically and figuratively to demonstrate "the holiness of God, which CONSUMES ALL that is inconsistent therewith." It doesn’t consume their physical bodies, nor does it burn their physical bodies to produce pain, but it "CONSUMES" all that is not consistent with God’s holiness. And these are the things of the heart, mind and spirit! It is not the "body" that needs chastisement and purification, it is the MIND, HEART, AND SPIRIT that needs purification from unholiness. You cannot burn pride and vanity out of one’s heart with REAL FIRE (besides the advocates of torturing with real fire for all eternity admit that it accomplishes NOTHING). It takes the fire of God’s spirit to burn away evils that have their origin in the realm of spirit.

This teaching is so absolutely elementary that it seems strange to even have to explain it. And yet, many of the greatest minds in theology today have not a clue as to these simple spiritual truths. All over the world Christian leaders continue to teach that the way God will deal with people who have wicked and carnal hearts, minds, and spirits, is to BURN THEIR FLESH IN REAL FIRE FOR ALL ETERNITY! And what, pray tell, does this infinite mountain of eternal pain accomplish? Why it is "justice" cry the high priests of Christendom!

Webster’s Concise Dictionary p. 392, justice n. 1. The quality of being just, fair, or impartial; evenhandedness.

So first and foremost we are told that burning billions and billions of men and women, and boy and girls, in fire for all eternity is "QUALITY!" - QUALITY? HELL IS A PLACE OF "QUALITY?" Just how sick can the human mind get, and just how low can the human heart sink? And this not from infidels, but from the leading advocates of the Christian Faith!

BACK TO SPIRITUAL BASICS

God gives us perfectly simple and understandable examples of HOW He deals with our sins and faults. In Hebrews 12:6 we read:

"For whom the LORD loves He chastens, and scourges every son whom he receives. If you endure chastening, God deals with you as with sons; for what son is he whom the father chastens not?"

Of course when we ask this question today, the answer is not so obvious as back when the writer of Hebrews asked it. Less and less children are chastened by their fathers today, and look at the disastrous results. But ideally a son should be chastened -- chastened, not BEATEN! Maybe I need to investigate this matter one day. Just maybe those who teach the hardest for an eternal hell of pain are those who were physically molested and beaten as children, rather than lovingly chastised. Continuing:

"Furthermore we have had fathers of our FLESH which corrected us, and we gave them reverence: shall we not much rather be in subjection unto the Father of SPIRITS, and live? For they verily for a few days chastened us after their own pleasure; but He for our profit, that we might be partakers of His HOLINESS.

Now no chastening for the present seems to be joyous, but grievous: nevertheless afterward it yields the peaceable fruit of righteousness unto them which are exercised thereby" (Heb. 12:9-11).

This is not difficult to understand. Our fathers in the FLESH have corrected us with rods, straps, belts, sticks, paddles, and the back of their hand. This was done for our teaching and correcting. And it worked, "...we gave them reverence..." Now then, "...shall we not MUCH RATHER be in subjection unto the Father of SPIRITS..."?

Our Heavenly Father is NOT FLESH, but is the Father of SPIRITS! God is SPIRIT. God is working with our SPIRITUAL life. God does not chasten and correct us believers in Christ Jesus with physical rods, straps, belts, sticks, paddles, and the back of His hand! So how is it that God our Father of spirits accomplishes on a spiritual level what our physical fathers tried to accomplish on a physical level? Verse 29 gives us the answer: "For our God is a CONSUMING FIRE !"

As trash is burned and precious metals are purified by the use of LITERAL and PHYSICAL fire, so God burns our spiritual trash and purifies those qualities of character worth saving by His SYMBOLIC and SPIRITUAL fire. Physical fire is inanimate and uncaring. God’s spiritual fire is caring and loving.

There it is. There’s the gospel; there’s the purpose for human existence; there’s the plan of God. God is forming man into the very image of Himself. This requires not only a knowledge of good and evil, but an experience of good and evil. God provides both. He is calling just a few select ones out of this world now, and He will call the remainder of the human race later.

Some sinners are called, given faith, brought to Christ, repent, receive God’s spirit and are being saved NOW. All the rest of the world’s sinners will also be called, given faith, brought to Christ, repent, receive God’s spirit and will be saved LATER. And God uses the same method to convert and save both groups of sinners. That’s because God CHANGES NOT and God is NO RESPECTER of persons, and God WILLS to save all mankind, and God will perform ALL HIS WILL, PURPOSE, AND PLEASURE!!
All of the above verses regarding fire are used in a figurative and symbolic manner. Christ does not literally "baptize" (IMMERSE) His saints in REAL PHYSICAL FIRE. It would burn them all up, and there wouldn’t be any saints or believers! Likewise we saw in Part I that the "lake of fire" is also symbolic and used in a metaphor to describe a SPIRITUAL TRUTH. More on this later.

And so we are assured that EVERYONE will be "revealed," "tried," "salted," and "baptized" "in FIRE." And these fiery trials as Peter calls them go on for a lifetime. If it were real, physical fire, all believers’ lives would be short indeed. God is SPIRIT, and God is a CONSUMING FIRE. It is God’s SPIRIT that is likened to fire. The spiritual teaching in this symbol is to recognize what real fire accomplishes and to then use that as an analogy as to what God DOES TO US (or more properly FOR US).

Fire does a number of things:

Fire CHANGES things. Fire brings about molecular changes in the materials that are burned. God’s spiritual fire will make changes in our mind, heart, and spirit.

Fire PURGES. In times past if a building were diseased and rat-infested, they would purge away the filth by burning it down. We are to be purged from all our diseases of sin and carnality. Jesus Christ paid the penalty of sin for us, but now God wants to get at the root and core of what caused us to sin in the first place. We all need desperately to be CHANGED and PURGED.

Fire BURNS UP combustible materials that have no value in saving. God will burn out of all of us the straw, grass, and stubble, which represent evil and wrong doctrines, idols of the heart, and philosophies that exalt themselves against God.

Fire PURIFIES things of value which we do want to retain. The analogy is used in the Scriptures of purifying gold by fire to make it more beautiful and more valuable. Gold represents the highest doctrines of spiritual understanding such as the Love of God and the Sovereignty of God, and salvation of all.

No one teaches us more regarding the fiery trials of life than the apostle to the nations, Paul. Paul was "revealed, tried, salted, and baptized" in God’s "CONSUMING FIRE," and yet never a single hair on his head was ever singed.

 As time allows, I'll try to add more, hoping others have the time to contribute, eventually I'd like to make copies for study purposes, pretty soon we will be reading Ray's new paper and I'm sure he will be critiquing the word FIRE and how it's used.

                                     Kind Regards, Samson.

« Last Edit: May 28, 2010, 12:10:39 PM by Samson »
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Linny

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #4 on: May 25, 2010, 06:59:47 PM »

Thanks a lot Samson!  ::) We just got finished with school and now I have homework!   >:(
You did lots of work here I can tell. I will be reading... ;)  :D
Lin
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markn902

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #5 on: May 27, 2010, 02:23:22 PM »

Nice Job Samson!  :)
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dave

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #6 on: May 27, 2010, 03:24:15 PM »

Very Good Very Nice!
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longhorn

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #7 on: May 27, 2010, 05:53:00 PM »

I think my brain just exploded.


Longhorn
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GinaMilan

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #8 on: May 28, 2010, 02:40:05 AM »

Samson, this is so helpful.  Thank you.

Gina
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Samson

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #9 on: May 28, 2010, 12:18:02 PM »

Samson, this is so helpful.  Thank you.

Gina

Hi Gina,

          I made the necessary adjustment, converting Ray's excerpts to Blue color, it threw my spacing off alittle. Marques was helpful by reminding me that I could modify the Post to change colors, Dummy me, didn't think of that. Well, thankyou Marques.

                                       Kind Regards, Samson.
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GinaMilan

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #10 on: May 28, 2010, 12:26:36 PM »

Oh, thank you, Samson and Marques.  :)
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Deborah-Leigh

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #11 on: May 28, 2010, 12:50:32 PM »


You are doing a worthy exercise Samson! :)

Paying attention to the words and assimilating, studying, thinking on and presenting the correct meaning of Gods Word and Spirit.

1Ti 4:8  For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come.

Good job!

Arc
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Samson

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #12 on: May 28, 2010, 12:59:01 PM »


You are doing a worthy exercise Samson! :)

Paying attention to the words and assimilating, studying, thinking on and presenting the correct meaning of Gods Word and Spirit.

1Ti 4:8  For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come.

Good job!

Arc

Hey Deborah,

                   If you get an opportunity, it's just a request, Please tackle Soul(Nephesh-Hebrew, Pysche-Greek) and Spirit(Ruahh-Hebrew, Pneuma-Greek) for the Thread. If not, I'll have to do it Tomorrow or the next day, have to leave for work. I had about ten more words prepared, but time didn't allow this thus far.

                                               Kind Regards, Samson.
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Deborah-Leigh

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #13 on: May 28, 2010, 05:06:21 PM »



http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,11605.0.html

Excellent information already compiled regarding soul and spirit insights presented by Dave of Tenn that might have inclusion in your study Samson.  :)

Arc
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Samson

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #14 on: June 07, 2010, 11:15:26 PM »

Hi Forum,

             Below is a continuation of more Greek Words coupled with the Hebrew Equivalents defined followed an excerpt(s) from Ray's articles. Once again, Scriptures may only be Paraphrased as time allows. Ray's information will be in Blue Color.

22) Pysche(Greek) & Nephesh(Hebrew): Soul; That in which their is life, A living being whether Animal or Human, A living soul. Gen. 2:7 " And the Man came to be a living Soul(Nephesh). 1Cor. 15:45 " The first Man came to be a living Soul(Pysche). Acts. 2:27 " For you will not leave my Soul(Pysche) in Hades."

23) Pneuma(Greek) & Ruahh(Hebrew): Spirit: A Current of Air, Non Carnal, Supernatural, always connotes the idea of invisible and Power, Breathe(Pneuma). To blow, Breathe, Wind, to perceive figuratively, vital force of life(Ruahh). Acts. 7:59 " Lord Jesus, receive my spirit, verse 60 " fell asleep." John. 19:30 " It is accomplished, He gave up the spirit." (He stopped breathing). Matt. 27:50 " He let go off the spirit." (Apheten to pneuma). Gen. 1:2 " God's Spirit(Ruahh) was moving to and fro." Psalm. 146:4 " His Spirit(Ruahh) goes out, In that day his thoughts do perish."

BODY

When a man dies his body (if not disintegrated) goes into a grave or tomb (Jn. 11:38) where within a few days it begins to smell and decompose (Jn. 11:39), and it returns [Heb. shub] to the dust of the ground from which it was taken (Gen. 3:17-19, Job 10:9, Psa. 9:17, etc., etc). The "person" is said to be where the "body" is and the "person" is resurrected from the place where the body is (Mat. 28:6). Only in a figurative or symbolic sense does a "body" ever go to sheol (Jonah 2:2). Jonah was not "literally" in hell [sheol], but in the fish, and besides he didn't even die. I'm sure Jonah's loss of perception inside the fish resembled his knowledge of the word "sheol."

SPIRIT

When a man dies his spirit returns to God Who gave it (Lk. 23:46, Psa. 104:24-30). The "spirit" is never said to go to hades or sheol, and the "soul" is never said to go to Heaven at death. Men and beasts have the same spirit [ruach] and they go to the same place (Ecc. 3:18-21). There is no getting around this: when God takes away a living soul's spirit, it always dies. The spirit "gives life." No one can live without "spirit," no matter how young and healthy he may be. There are no exceptions. If there are, where is the Scripture? A dead person cannot experience anything-not pleasure in Heaven or pain in a fabled hell. This is a serious thing. Rom. 14:23 says: "Now everything which is not out of faith is sin." If one doesn't have Scriptures that show people go to eternal hell fire after death, then it is a sin to teach it.

SOUL

When a man dies his soul goes to the unseen or imperceptible [Gk: hades, Heb: sheol]. We also know that when man is in this condition (dead) it is likened to "sleep" (Psa. 13:3, Dan. 12:1-2, Jn. 11:11-14). God Himself likens death to sleep,

"The Lord said unto Moses [concerning his imminent death], Behold, thou shalt sleep with thy fathers ... " (Deut. 31:16)

This is substantiated by the fact that:

"The living know that they shall die, but the dead know not anything" (Ecc. 9:5,6).

Again:

" ... for there is no work, nor device [contrivance, intelligence, reason], nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in sheol." (Ecc. 9:10).

Do we think all of these Scriptures lie? According to what we just read in Ecc. 9:5,6,10, do dead people know anything? And these verses are correctly translated.

The words "soul" and "spirit" have become corrupted through theology so that they are now used interchangeably, as if they were synonymous. They are not synonymous. There may be certain similarities between soul and spirit, but similarities do not make them one and the same.

The "soul" is the seat of sensation, consciousness, and feelings, not the body or the spirit. It is the spirit that imparts life to the body and the body then becomes a living soul (Gen. 2:7).

A thorough study of the word "soul" in the Scriptures proves that it is used of consciousness, feelings, and emotions. Hence, "sensation" is a good word to define its usage.

�         souls can touch (Lev. 5:2)

�         souls have knowledge (Pr. 2:10)

�         souls have memory (Lam. 3:20)

�         souls can love, and be joyful (Psa. 35:9; 86:4)

�         souls can hunger and thirst (Deut. 14:26)

�         souls can sin (Lev. 4:2)

�         life can be given to a soul (Job 3:20)

�         souls can die (Ezek. 18:20)

�         souls can be converted (Psa. 19:7)

�         none can keep alive his (own) soul (Psa. 22:29)

�         honey is sweet to the soul (Pr. 16:24)

�         even God has a soul (Lev. 26:11, I Sam. 2:35, Jer. 32:41)

�         souls can hear (Acts 3:22-23)

�         souls can experience pleasure (Heb. 10:3)

�         souls can be purified (I Pet. 1:22)

�         and souls can receive salvation (I Pet. 1:9).

These verses show the wide range of emotions and sensations that "souls" experience, but dead souls experience nothing in the unseen or imperceptible (hades). We need to pay close attention to the meaning of words. Hades comes from the Greek a(i)des. The a is a prefix which is equivalent to our un- and the stem -id means perceive. Thus we have UN-PERCEIVE, or imperceptible: the unseen. Etymologically, your doctrine of torment in hell falls flat on its face. From the words that God chose to call this condition of the soul after death, one thing is crystal clear: There is absolutely no perception there. And the soul has everything to do with perception and sensation as clearly seen from the verses above.

So why do you teach that there is perception in death? The very meaning of the word itself (hades) is unseen or imperceptible, so how can a dead soul have perception in a condition of imperception? God Himself chose this word which teaches us that hades is UN-perceptible or IM-perceptible (NO perception).

Because of the shameful way these words are translated and interchanged in the Authorized Version, it is nearly impossible to understand their true meanings without an exhaustive concordance.

FROM KING JAMES TRANSLATION:

SPIRIT
 [pneuma]
 is translated
 LIFE in Rev. 13:5
 
SOUL
 [nephesh]
 is translated
 HEART in Prov. 23:7, etc
 
HEART
 [leb]
 is translated
 MIND in Prov. 21:27, I Sam. 9:20, etc.
 
SOUL
 [nephesh]
 is translated
 LIFE in Gen. 9:4, Lev. 17:11, etc
 
SOUL
 [nephesh]
 is translated
 GHOST in Job 11:2
 
SPIRIT
 [pneuma]
 is translated
 GHOST in Mark 1:8
 
SOUL
 [nephesh]
 is translated
 BEAST in Lev. 24:18.
 
BEAST
 [chay]
 is translated
 LIFE in Lev. 18:18.
 
SOUL
 [nephesh]
 is translated
 BODY in Lev. 21:11, Hag. 2:35, etc.
 

This kind of translating is not responsible scholarship-it's confusing and contradictory.

The Apostle Paul admonished Timothy to "have a pattern of sound words" (II Tim. 1:13) The Scriptures quoted above clearly show the translator's disregard for this instruction.

Man is mortal (Job 4:17). Not one Scripture says that man is "immortal" or has an "immortal" soul. Not one. "Our Lord, Jesus Christ: the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; who only has immortality" (I Tim. 6:14-16).

It is by means of the "resurrection" that God causes dead people to live again. The Apostle Paul said: "Concerning the expectation and resurrection of the dead am I being judged" (Acts 23:6). The truth regarding the "resurrection of the dead" is not even taught in Christendom today. They teach that there are no dead people (only dead bodies). They teach that people are either alive on earth, alive in Heaven, or alive in Hell. What need have we for a "resurrection of the dead" if there are no dead people to resurrect? This, my friend, is heresy!

Paul also stated: "Now if there is no resurrection of the dead, neither has Christ been roused. Now if Christ has not been roused, for naught, consequently, is our heralding, and for naught is your faith" (I Cor. 15:14-15). The very salvation of mankind rests on the resurrection.

[23) Thlipsis: Tribulation, affliction, literally means pressure. 2Thess. 1:6 " Gods part to repay Tribulation." Matt. 24: 29 " Immediately after the Tribulation of those days." Matt. 24:9 " People will deliver you up to Tribulation."

The word tribulation in this verse comes from Strong's #2347, thlipsis and it means: " pressure (literally or figuratively): - afflicted, (-tion), anguish, burdened, persecution, tribulation, trouble."

[It is not by escaping tribulation that we enter God's Kingdom (as in the unscriptural rapture theory), but by going "through much tribulation."

The phrase "The great tribulation" is used hundreds of thousands of times by the Church, and yet (just as there is no such thing as "THE antichrist") there is no such phrase in the Bible as "The great tribulation." Oh there is tribulation and great tribulation alright, but not just one called "The" tribulation. Here how the unscriptural "Secret Rapture to Heaven" theory is taught:

"If you argue that the Church must go through the Great Tribulation, then you're taking away from the imminency [eminency] of the return of Jesus Christ. The Church will not be watching, nor do we have any need to be watching for His return, if we must first go through the Great Tribulation, in that case, we'd be watching for the Great Tribulation or the unveiling of the Antichrist. The Church would then have many things to watch for, and we could actually follow the final events rather carefully." From the book: The Tribulation and the Church by Chuck Smith

Does Chuck Smith have a chapter and verse on that bit of heresy? No, of course not. We do, however, have a Scripture that demolishes such heresy.

"Immediately after [does everyone understand the difference between 'before' and 'after?'] ...immediately after the tribulation of those days.... He [Jesus] shall send His angels with a great sound of a trumpet [I Cor. 15:52], and they shall gather together His elect [for the first time, I might also add] from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other" (Matt. 24:29 & 31).

One other major point: Clearly this verse and others show that Christ returns "after the tribulation of those days." "But in those days, after the tribulation... shall He send His angels, and shall gather together His Elect..." (Mark 13:24 & 27).   

And Jesus is said to come in wrath:

"...hide us from the face of Him that sits on the throne and from the wrath of the Lamb: for the great day of His wrath is come..." (Rev. 6:16-17)

"And the seventh angel sounded... [the seventh trump is the last trump, I Cor. 15:52] ...and Thy wrath is come..." (Rev. 11:18)

The days of "great tribulation" end at Christ's presence, and the day of "His wrath" begins at His presence. They are two separate and different events, and different judgments on different people for different purposes. If you have not seen or do not understand the absolute differences in Scripture between tribulation and affliction versus wrath and indignation, then be sure to read my ten-page section dealing with it in detail, in my paper "Exposing the Secret Rapture Theory."

24) Thelo(Derived from Thelema): To will, desire, to wish; Ethelo-stronger form of Thelo: to choose or prefer. 1Tim. 2:4 " Will that all be saved." Matt. 6:10 " Let your Will take place." 2Peter. 3:9 " Does not(ou'de, ou) Will any be destroyed."

25) Pas: ALL, any, every, the whole, As many as. 1Tim.4:10 " Who is the Savior of ALL Men."
     Pantos(Derived from Pas): Entirely, at all events, By all means, Wholly. Col. 1:16 " By means of Him, ALL things were created." Col. 1:20 " Reconcile to Himself ALL Things."


Now what is it about that scripture that would make you think that God will or have to save all?  What is in there, what word?  All.  The word all, right?  Wrong, pale face.  You don’t understand hermeneutics or this good stuff taught in the seminaries of this world. So it’s wrong.  The word ‘all’ can mean - all, completely, totality or as many as.

So they say, ‘well yes He is the living God who will save as many men, as He will save, however many that is.  Those that come to Him out of free will choice and accept Christ.  Yes He will save that many, that all.  The word pas in the Greek, that’s how many He will save, as many as He will save.  He will especially save believers for sure, because God so loved the world, that whosoever believes on His Son will be saved.  You will receive eternal life if you believe.  Certainly the believers and all men who are not believers, but maybe will be believers in the ages to come, through this church age and however many there are.  The all, the pas, the many will be saved too, but not everyone.’

Okay, another scripture from someone. 

1 Tim 2:4  who will have all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

Now what is it in that verse that suggests everyone will be saved?  All.  Same word all - pas - as many as.  So here’s their argument, if pas means as many as, then it doesn’t have to mean all, the absolute all, see.

Next verse, Col 1:20  “And through Him having made peace through the blood of His cross, it pleased the Father to reconcile all things to Himself through Him, whether the things on earth or the things in Heaven.”

Okay what is the word in there that suggests He will save all?  All - pas.  He will save as many as.  See here’s how a theologian commentary might go on that.  “having made peace through the blood of His cross, it pleased the Father to reconcile ALL…”   that’s the Greek word pas - as many as come to Him, accept Him, receive His sacrifice, etc., that’s how many, pas - all - as many as do what they have to do.  See?  So you’ve got to put all the scriptures together.  You just can’t base it on one scripture.

1 Cor 15:22  For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all will be made alive.

[Theologians] Those who accept Jesus shall be made alive in the kingdom of God, those that do not accept Jesus shall be made alive so they can suffer for all eternity in the lake of fire.  They will all be made alive, you bet ya. 

2 Peter 3:9  The Lord is not slow concerning His promise, as some count slowness, but is long-suffering toward us, not purposing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.

The all - pas - as many as,  as many as come to repentance will come to repentance and as many as will not come, will not.  So as many as will not, will not be saved.

Now let me show you that technically they are right about the word.  Let’s prove that, where it says “all should be saved,”  why do they say that doesn’t mean all?  Because they despise the Word of God, that’s why.  They despise the Word of God.  They don’t say that this word never means all or complete or every or everyone.  They only say it never means that when it’s talking about salvation.  Why?  Because they despise the Word of God.  One day we are going to understand that, it’s only when it comes to salvation specifically and particularly.  Not that there are other occasions that they know it doesn’t mean all, because that’s their proof to say that it doesn’t mean all when it’s talking about salvation.  But the reason that they do that is they despise the Word of God and they don’t want everybody to be saved.  They’re vengeful and hateful.  There are people that have hurt them in their lives and they want those people to go to hell. 

How many people, how many thousands of people have written me emails and not only said, ‘go to hell you _ _ or you _ _ _,’ and every foul name, in addition to all those that say, not quite so abruptly, ‘well Ray you’re going there, one day you will find out.’  Trust me, they want me to go there, they want me to some day wake up in hell burning and they will say, ‘ha ha ha, I told you Ray.’  If I’d say at that point, well I repent now, they would say, ‘well you can’t.’  Well why can’t I?  ‘You can’t do good when God has determined that you have to do bad for all eternity.’  So I would say no, but I want to do good anyway.  ‘You can’t, it’s not allowed.’  I’d say, God will not allow me to repent and do good here is hell?  ‘No.’  What?  Can you see the insanity of this stuff!

So here’s a verse, notice it. 

Mark 1:5  “And they went out unto Him all…”   Same Greek word, pas.  Now if we said pas means every last one  single one, here it is, pas means all, any, every, the whole, ever, as many as.  Now if the meaning didn’t have that ‘as many as’ in there, we could say yes it does mean absolutely everyone.  “…ALL the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem…”  Do you really believe that every single person alive, all Judaea and the whole city of Jerusalem went out to Christ?  The infants, the elderly that can’t walk?  Of course not.  Notice this next part;  “…and were ALL…” same Greek word pas - all, every or as many as, “… baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.”  Does that word pas in the Greek mean every single one there?  No, it does not and we don’t even have to speculate on that, because of Matt 3.

Mat 3:7  But when he (John the Baptist) saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming to his baptism, he said unto them, ye generation of snakes, who warned you to escape from the wrath to come?
v. 8  Bring forth fruit meet of repentance:

In other words he wasn’t going to baptize them unless they repented of all their evil doings.  So we know for a fact the Sadducees and the Pharisees were not baptized and it says, “they were ALL baptized.” 

We also know that when they asked Christ, “By what authority do You do these things?” (Matt 21:23)  He said well I’ll answer you if you first tell Me by what authority did John the Baptist, baptize?  They got together and said, well what’s He trying to do here?  Let’s see, we could say that he just did his own thing.  Well no, we can’t say that, because the people thought he was a man of God.  They’ll hate us and stone us.  But if we say, he was a man sent from God, then Christ will say why weren’t you baptized.  So this is proof that they weren’t baptized.  So they said verse 27, we can’t answer that Lord.  “… And He said to them, "Neither will I tell you by what authority I do these things.”   So we have proof that pas does not always mean all. 

1 Tim 2:4  who will have all (Gk. #3956 pas - all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as) men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.

So when we find, “who will have all men to be saved.”  We can’t base that on the word pas, even though we know from the context that it is speaking of all. 

Now we are going to take a look at a number of scriptures and hopefully we will start getting some clarification on these important matters.  So I have 1 Tim 2:4 and you already brought it up that God our Savior will have all men saved.  Actually the theologians find 2 problems with that.  The word will comes from 2 different Greek words primarily in the New Test. 

Mat 6:10  Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done, on earth as it is in Heaven.

When it says, in the Lord pray, “Thy will be done…”  That is the strong form of the word ‘will’ and it means absolutely, it absolutely must be done.  But then you have the weaker form, I say weaker when it’s not speaking in God’s absolute declaration, but it means a sincere desire to do something.  And Christ used it many times, Paul used it many times.  But I’ve shown in an email on our site , 7 places where it has to be more that a wish, (http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,3098.0.html - I believe this is the email Ray was referring to).  Because it absolutely has to come about by the context.  But sometimes it doesn’t, it just means a desire.  Paul said, I desire to come onto you, but Satan hindered me (1 Thess 2:18).   Well he didn’t come, he didn’t absolutely say I will come and therefore it is written in stone and it will happen, you see. 

Here’s where it says “who will” (1 Tim 2:4), it’s that weaker form of desire.  So you can translate it, “God who desires that all…”  so they say, since it’s only a desire, it doesn’t have to come about, see.  That’s when you liken God to a man.  But you are breaking the first, second and third commandments there, and the fifth, of dishonoring your Father.  They break 4 commandments there by saying, when God desires something He can’t always have it.  Why?  What kind of nonsense is that?  How could a human conceive that the Creator of the universe, desires - inside emotional feeling, He desires or wants, desires to have something, but He can’t have it.  That’s blasphemy.  But they don’t so.  It is blasphemy, because you are bringing God down to a human level.  We humans desire, I desire for my knees to get better, it’s not happening.  But if God desired for His knees not to hurt, guess what?  They wouldn’t hurt, but God doesn’t have knees, but if He did.  So first they say His will there, is nothing more than a unobtainable weak wish.  And all means just as many as, as many as do whatever other scripture say they have to do, in order to be saved.  That scripture proves no such thing, as God will save all humanity (1 Tim 2:4).

Kind Regards and welcoming any continuation of this exercise, Samson.

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Cypress

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #15 on: June 09, 2010, 10:48:50 AM »

Ill definitely read thru this :).
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Elaine

Duane

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #16 on: July 08, 2010, 01:23:44 AM »

Being a "Samson-ite", I read your article (whew!) with great interest as I just had a lengthy conversation with my sister, who is certain that Ray uses the most obscure meanings of Greek words to prove his points!  She , then, directed me to the BLUEBIBLE.COM where she introduced me to their GREEK lexicon
which may be useful to YOU!  She is very concerned that I am being "led astray" with these "new" vocabularies tht seem to result in different conclusions than the fundmentalists TRIED AND TRUE beliefs.
I would be especially flattered if you read my lastest posting on DOUBLE_BLIND and commented on it!
In Christ---Duane 
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G. Driggs

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #17 on: July 08, 2010, 10:08:14 PM »

Quote from: John from Kentucky
However, the most important thing is to have the Spirit of God.  God's Spirit can lead you into all truth even if you are on a desert island with no books.  There have been great Greek and Hebrew scholars who were completely ignorant about the Truths of God.

This is common knowledge here John.

Samson keep up the good work, it is obviously very edifying to many here.

2Ti 2:15  Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

1Th 4:11  And that ye study to be quiet, and to do your own business, and to work with your own hands, as we commanded you;
1Th 4:12  That ye may walk honestly toward them that are without, and that ye may have lack of nothing.

gdriggs
« Last Edit: July 09, 2010, 12:15:09 AM by G. Driggs »
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judith collier

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #18 on: July 08, 2010, 11:50:19 PM »

I was just wondering why the Greek Orthodox believe as they do. My daughter's in-laws were born and raised in Greece. My son-in-law was five when he came to America.  This family worked hard and became very successful and was ultimately responsible for building a very large church here in Ft. Wayne, Ind. They  study the scriptures in Greek. Their faith in Jesus is not easily matched. They have many traditions of the early church and like many other cultures group together.
Why do they not question their beliefs when their translations are probably better than ours in English.
Curious, Judy
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Kat

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Re: Greek Words Defined & Usage
« Reply #19 on: July 09, 2010, 10:51:36 AM »


Hi Judy,

Quote
I was just wondering why the Greek Orthodox believe as they do....  They  study the scriptures in Greek. Their faith in Jesus is not easily matched. They have many traditions of the early church...

Well think of those that actually heard Jesus preach and those that heard the Apostles preach... you would think what more did they need, why didn't they of all people get it? Unless you are given the Holy Spirit to open your eyes and ears, then you are deceived and will certainly not know the truth. I would think there have been many devout people down through the centuries since Christ, who have spent their whole lives sincerely seeking the truth and never knew it, because that is not the way to understanding.

John 6:44  No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The world is deceived and remain so until Christ returns and "every eye will see Him," (Rev 1:7).

mercy, peace and love
Kat

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