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Greek Words Defined & Usage
GinaMilan:
Oh, thank you, Samson and Marques. :)
Deborah-Leigh:
You are doing a worthy exercise Samson! :)
Paying attention to the words and assimilating, studying, thinking on and presenting the correct meaning of Gods Word and Spirit.
1Ti 4:8 For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come.
Good job!
Arc
Samson:
--- Quote from: Arcturus on May 28, 2010, 09:50:32 AM ---
You are doing a worthy exercise Samson! :)
Paying attention to the words and assimilating, studying, thinking on and presenting the correct meaning of Gods Word and Spirit.
1Ti 4:8 For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come.
Good job!
Arc
--- End quote ---
Hey Deborah,
If you get an opportunity, it's just a request, Please tackle Soul(Nephesh-Hebrew, Pysche-Greek) and Spirit(Ruahh-Hebrew, Pneuma-Greek) for the Thread. If not, I'll have to do it Tomorrow or the next day, have to leave for work. I had about ten more words prepared, but time didn't allow this thus far.
Kind Regards, Samson.
Deborah-Leigh:
http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,11605.0.html
Excellent information already compiled regarding soul and spirit insights presented by Dave of Tenn that might have inclusion in your study Samson. :)
Arc
Samson:
Hi Forum,
Below is a continuation of more Greek Words coupled with the Hebrew Equivalents defined followed an excerpt(s) from Ray's articles. Once again, Scriptures may only be Paraphrased as time allows. Ray's information will be in Blue Color.
22) Pysche(Greek) & Nephesh(Hebrew): Soul; That in which their is life, A living being whether Animal or Human, A living soul. Gen. 2:7 " And the Man came to be a living Soul(Nephesh). 1Cor. 15:45 " The first Man came to be a living Soul(Pysche). Acts. 2:27 " For you will not leave my Soul(Pysche) in Hades."
23) Pneuma(Greek) & Ruahh(Hebrew): Spirit: A Current of Air, Non Carnal, Supernatural, always connotes the idea of invisible and Power, Breathe(Pneuma). To blow, Breathe, Wind, to perceive figuratively, vital force of life(Ruahh). Acts. 7:59 " Lord Jesus, receive my spirit, verse 60 " fell asleep." John. 19:30 " It is accomplished, He gave up the spirit." (He stopped breathing). Matt. 27:50 " He let go off the spirit." (Apheten to pneuma). Gen. 1:2 " God's Spirit(Ruahh) was moving to and fro." Psalm. 146:4 " His Spirit(Ruahh) goes out, In that day his thoughts do perish."
BODY
When a man dies his body (if not disintegrated) goes into a grave or tomb (Jn. 11:38) where within a few days it begins to smell and decompose (Jn. 11:39), and it returns [Heb. shub] to the dust of the ground from which it was taken (Gen. 3:17-19, Job 10:9, Psa. 9:17, etc., etc). The "person" is said to be where the "body" is and the "person" is resurrected from the place where the body is (Mat. 28:6). Only in a figurative or symbolic sense does a "body" ever go to sheol (Jonah 2:2). Jonah was not "literally" in hell [sheol], but in the fish, and besides he didn't even die. I'm sure Jonah's loss of perception inside the fish resembled his knowledge of the word "sheol."
SPIRIT
When a man dies his spirit returns to God Who gave it (Lk. 23:46, Psa. 104:24-30). The "spirit" is never said to go to hades or sheol, and the "soul" is never said to go to Heaven at death. Men and beasts have the same spirit [ruach] and they go to the same place (Ecc. 3:18-21). There is no getting around this: when God takes away a living soul's spirit, it always dies. The spirit "gives life." No one can live without "spirit," no matter how young and healthy he may be. There are no exceptions. If there are, where is the Scripture? A dead person cannot experience anything-not pleasure in Heaven or pain in a fabled hell. This is a serious thing. Rom. 14:23 says: "Now everything which is not out of faith is sin." If one doesn't have Scriptures that show people go to eternal hell fire after death, then it is a sin to teach it.
SOUL
When a man dies his soul goes to the unseen or imperceptible [Gk: hades, Heb: sheol]. We also know that when man is in this condition (dead) it is likened to "sleep" (Psa. 13:3, Dan. 12:1-2, Jn. 11:11-14). God Himself likens death to sleep,
"The Lord said unto Moses [concerning his imminent death], Behold, thou shalt sleep with thy fathers ... " (Deut. 31:16)
This is substantiated by the fact that:
"The living know that they shall die, but the dead know not anything" (Ecc. 9:5,6).
Again:
" ... for there is no work, nor device [contrivance, intelligence, reason], nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in sheol." (Ecc. 9:10).
Do we think all of these Scriptures lie? According to what we just read in Ecc. 9:5,6,10, do dead people know anything? And these verses are correctly translated.
The words "soul" and "spirit" have become corrupted through theology so that they are now used interchangeably, as if they were synonymous. They are not synonymous. There may be certain similarities between soul and spirit, but similarities do not make them one and the same.
The "soul" is the seat of sensation, consciousness, and feelings, not the body or the spirit. It is the spirit that imparts life to the body and the body then becomes a living soul (Gen. 2:7).
A thorough study of the word "soul" in the Scriptures proves that it is used of consciousness, feelings, and emotions. Hence, "sensation" is a good word to define its usage.
� souls can touch (Lev. 5:2)
� souls have knowledge (Pr. 2:10)
� souls have memory (Lam. 3:20)
� souls can love, and be joyful (Psa. 35:9; 86:4)
� souls can hunger and thirst (Deut. 14:26)
� souls can sin (Lev. 4:2)
� life can be given to a soul (Job 3:20)
� souls can die (Ezek. 18:20)
� souls can be converted (Psa. 19:7)
� none can keep alive his (own) soul (Psa. 22:29)
� honey is sweet to the soul (Pr. 16:24)
� even God has a soul (Lev. 26:11, I Sam. 2:35, Jer. 32:41)
� souls can hear (Acts 3:22-23)
� souls can experience pleasure (Heb. 10:3)
� souls can be purified (I Pet. 1:22)
� and souls can receive salvation (I Pet. 1:9).
These verses show the wide range of emotions and sensations that "souls" experience, but dead souls experience nothing in the unseen or imperceptible (hades). We need to pay close attention to the meaning of words. Hades comes from the Greek a(i)des. The a is a prefix which is equivalent to our un- and the stem -id means perceive. Thus we have UN-PERCEIVE, or imperceptible: the unseen. Etymologically, your doctrine of torment in hell falls flat on its face. From the words that God chose to call this condition of the soul after death, one thing is crystal clear: There is absolutely no perception there. And the soul has everything to do with perception and sensation as clearly seen from the verses above.
So why do you teach that there is perception in death? The very meaning of the word itself (hades) is unseen or imperceptible, so how can a dead soul have perception in a condition of imperception? God Himself chose this word which teaches us that hades is UN-perceptible or IM-perceptible (NO perception).
Because of the shameful way these words are translated and interchanged in the Authorized Version, it is nearly impossible to understand their true meanings without an exhaustive concordance.
FROM KING JAMES TRANSLATION:
SPIRIT
[pneuma]
is translated
LIFE in Rev. 13:5
SOUL
[nephesh]
is translated
HEART in Prov. 23:7, etc
HEART
[leb]
is translated
MIND in Prov. 21:27, I Sam. 9:20, etc.
SOUL
[nephesh]
is translated
LIFE in Gen. 9:4, Lev. 17:11, etc
SOUL
[nephesh]
is translated
GHOST in Job 11:2
SPIRIT
[pneuma]
is translated
GHOST in Mark 1:8
SOUL
[nephesh]
is translated
BEAST in Lev. 24:18.
BEAST
[chay]
is translated
LIFE in Lev. 18:18.
SOUL
[nephesh]
is translated
BODY in Lev. 21:11, Hag. 2:35, etc.
This kind of translating is not responsible scholarship-it's confusing and contradictory.
The Apostle Paul admonished Timothy to "have a pattern of sound words" (II Tim. 1:13) The Scriptures quoted above clearly show the translator's disregard for this instruction.
Man is mortal (Job 4:17). Not one Scripture says that man is "immortal" or has an "immortal" soul. Not one. "Our Lord, Jesus Christ: the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; who only has immortality" (I Tim. 6:14-16).
It is by means of the "resurrection" that God causes dead people to live again. The Apostle Paul said: "Concerning the expectation and resurrection of the dead am I being judged" (Acts 23:6). The truth regarding the "resurrection of the dead" is not even taught in Christendom today. They teach that there are no dead people (only dead bodies). They teach that people are either alive on earth, alive in Heaven, or alive in Hell. What need have we for a "resurrection of the dead" if there are no dead people to resurrect? This, my friend, is heresy!
Paul also stated: "Now if there is no resurrection of the dead, neither has Christ been roused. Now if Christ has not been roused, for naught, consequently, is our heralding, and for naught is your faith" (I Cor. 15:14-15). The very salvation of mankind rests on the resurrection.
[23) Thlipsis: Tribulation, affliction, literally means pressure. 2Thess. 1:6 " Gods part to repay Tribulation." Matt. 24: 29 " Immediately after the Tribulation of those days." Matt. 24:9 " People will deliver you up to Tribulation."
The word tribulation in this verse comes from Strong's #2347, thlipsis and it means: " pressure (literally or figuratively): - afflicted, (-tion), anguish, burdened, persecution, tribulation, trouble."
[It is not by escaping tribulation that we enter God's Kingdom (as in the unscriptural rapture theory), but by going "through much tribulation."
The phrase "The great tribulation" is used hundreds of thousands of times by the Church, and yet (just as there is no such thing as "THE antichrist") there is no such phrase in the Bible as "The great tribulation." Oh there is tribulation and great tribulation alright, but not just one called "The" tribulation. Here how the unscriptural "Secret Rapture to Heaven" theory is taught:
"If you argue that the Church must go through the Great Tribulation, then you're taking away from the imminency [eminency] of the return of Jesus Christ. The Church will not be watching, nor do we have any need to be watching for His return, if we must first go through the Great Tribulation, in that case, we'd be watching for the Great Tribulation or the unveiling of the Antichrist. The Church would then have many things to watch for, and we could actually follow the final events rather carefully." From the book: The Tribulation and the Church by Chuck Smith
Does Chuck Smith have a chapter and verse on that bit of heresy? No, of course not. We do, however, have a Scripture that demolishes such heresy.
"Immediately after [does everyone understand the difference between 'before' and 'after?'] ...immediately after the tribulation of those days.... He [Jesus] shall send His angels with a great sound of a trumpet [I Cor. 15:52], and they shall gather together His elect [for the first time, I might also add] from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other" (Matt. 24:29 & 31).
One other major point: Clearly this verse and others show that Christ returns "after the tribulation of those days." "But in those days, after the tribulation... shall He send His angels, and shall gather together His Elect..." (Mark 13:24 & 27).
And Jesus is said to come in wrath:
"...hide us from the face of Him that sits on the throne and from the wrath of the Lamb: for the great day of His wrath is come..." (Rev. 6:16-17)
"And the seventh angel sounded... [the seventh trump is the last trump, I Cor. 15:52] ...and Thy wrath is come..." (Rev. 11:18)
The days of "great tribulation" end at Christ's presence, and the day of "His wrath" begins at His presence. They are two separate and different events, and different judgments on different people for different purposes. If you have not seen or do not understand the absolute differences in Scripture between tribulation and affliction versus wrath and indignation, then be sure to read my ten-page section dealing with it in detail, in my paper "Exposing the Secret Rapture Theory."
24) Thelo(Derived from Thelema): To will, desire, to wish; Ethelo-stronger form of Thelo: to choose or prefer. 1Tim. 2:4 " Will that all be saved." Matt. 6:10 " Let your Will take place." 2Peter. 3:9 " Does not(ou'de, ou) Will any be destroyed."
25) Pas: ALL, any, every, the whole, As many as. 1Tim.4:10 " Who is the Savior of ALL Men."
Pantos(Derived from Pas): Entirely, at all events, By all means, Wholly. Col. 1:16 " By means of Him, ALL things were created." Col. 1:20 " Reconcile to Himself ALL Things."
Now what is it about that scripture that would make you think that God will or have to save all? What is in there, what word? All. The word all, right? Wrong, pale face. You don’t understand hermeneutics or this good stuff taught in the seminaries of this world. So it’s wrong. The word ‘all’ can mean - all, completely, totality or as many as.
So they say, ‘well yes He is the living God who will save as many men, as He will save, however many that is. Those that come to Him out of free will choice and accept Christ. Yes He will save that many, that all. The word pas in the Greek, that’s how many He will save, as many as He will save. He will especially save believers for sure, because God so loved the world, that whosoever believes on His Son will be saved. You will receive eternal life if you believe. Certainly the believers and all men who are not believers, but maybe will be believers in the ages to come, through this church age and however many there are. The all, the pas, the many will be saved too, but not everyone.’
Okay, another scripture from someone.
1 Tim 2:4 who will have all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
Now what is it in that verse that suggests everyone will be saved? All. Same word all - pas - as many as. So here’s their argument, if pas means as many as, then it doesn’t have to mean all, the absolute all, see.
Next verse, Col 1:20 “And through Him having made peace through the blood of His cross, it pleased the Father to reconcile all things to Himself through Him, whether the things on earth or the things in Heaven.”
Okay what is the word in there that suggests He will save all? All - pas. He will save as many as. See here’s how a theologian commentary might go on that. “having made peace through the blood of His cross, it pleased the Father to reconcile ALL…” that’s the Greek word pas - as many as come to Him, accept Him, receive His sacrifice, etc., that’s how many, pas - all - as many as do what they have to do. See? So you’ve got to put all the scriptures together. You just can’t base it on one scripture.
1 Cor 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all will be made alive.
[Theologians] Those who accept Jesus shall be made alive in the kingdom of God, those that do not accept Jesus shall be made alive so they can suffer for all eternity in the lake of fire. They will all be made alive, you bet ya.
2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is not slow concerning His promise, as some count slowness, but is long-suffering toward us, not purposing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
The all - pas - as many as, as many as come to repentance will come to repentance and as many as will not come, will not. So as many as will not, will not be saved.
Now let me show you that technically they are right about the word. Let’s prove that, where it says “all should be saved,” why do they say that doesn’t mean all? Because they despise the Word of God, that’s why. They despise the Word of God. They don’t say that this word never means all or complete or every or everyone. They only say it never means that when it’s talking about salvation. Why? Because they despise the Word of God. One day we are going to understand that, it’s only when it comes to salvation specifically and particularly. Not that there are other occasions that they know it doesn’t mean all, because that’s their proof to say that it doesn’t mean all when it’s talking about salvation. But the reason that they do that is they despise the Word of God and they don’t want everybody to be saved. They’re vengeful and hateful. There are people that have hurt them in their lives and they want those people to go to hell.
How many people, how many thousands of people have written me emails and not only said, ‘go to hell you _ _ or you _ _ _,’ and every foul name, in addition to all those that say, not quite so abruptly, ‘well Ray you’re going there, one day you will find out.’ Trust me, they want me to go there, they want me to some day wake up in hell burning and they will say, ‘ha ha ha, I told you Ray.’ If I’d say at that point, well I repent now, they would say, ‘well you can’t.’ Well why can’t I? ‘You can’t do good when God has determined that you have to do bad for all eternity.’ So I would say no, but I want to do good anyway. ‘You can’t, it’s not allowed.’ I’d say, God will not allow me to repent and do good here is hell? ‘No.’ What? Can you see the insanity of this stuff!
So here’s a verse, notice it.
Mark 1:5 “And they went out unto Him all…” Same Greek word, pas. Now if we said pas means every last one single one, here it is, pas means all, any, every, the whole, ever, as many as. Now if the meaning didn’t have that ‘as many as’ in there, we could say yes it does mean absolutely everyone. “…ALL the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem…” Do you really believe that every single person alive, all Judaea and the whole city of Jerusalem went out to Christ? The infants, the elderly that can’t walk? Of course not. Notice this next part; “…and were ALL…” same Greek word pas - all, every or as many as, “… baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.” Does that word pas in the Greek mean every single one there? No, it does not and we don’t even have to speculate on that, because of Matt 3.
Mat 3:7 But when he (John the Baptist) saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming to his baptism, he said unto them, ye generation of snakes, who warned you to escape from the wrath to come?
v. 8 Bring forth fruit meet of repentance:
In other words he wasn’t going to baptize them unless they repented of all their evil doings. So we know for a fact the Sadducees and the Pharisees were not baptized and it says, “they were ALL baptized.”
We also know that when they asked Christ, “By what authority do You do these things?” (Matt 21:23) He said well I’ll answer you if you first tell Me by what authority did John the Baptist, baptize? They got together and said, well what’s He trying to do here? Let’s see, we could say that he just did his own thing. Well no, we can’t say that, because the people thought he was a man of God. They’ll hate us and stone us. But if we say, he was a man sent from God, then Christ will say why weren’t you baptized. So this is proof that they weren’t baptized. So they said verse 27, we can’t answer that Lord. “… And He said to them, "Neither will I tell you by what authority I do these things.” So we have proof that pas does not always mean all.
1 Tim 2:4 who will have all (Gk. #3956 pas - all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as) men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
So when we find, “who will have all men to be saved.” We can’t base that on the word pas, even though we know from the context that it is speaking of all.
Now we are going to take a look at a number of scriptures and hopefully we will start getting some clarification on these important matters. So I have 1 Tim 2:4 and you already brought it up that God our Savior will have all men saved. Actually the theologians find 2 problems with that. The word will comes from 2 different Greek words primarily in the New Test.
Mat 6:10 Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done, on earth as it is in Heaven.
When it says, in the Lord pray, “Thy will be done…” That is the strong form of the word ‘will’ and it means absolutely, it absolutely must be done. But then you have the weaker form, I say weaker when it’s not speaking in God’s absolute declaration, but it means a sincere desire to do something. And Christ used it many times, Paul used it many times. But I’ve shown in an email on our site , 7 places where it has to be more that a wish, (http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,3098.0.html - I believe this is the email Ray was referring to). Because it absolutely has to come about by the context. But sometimes it doesn’t, it just means a desire. Paul said, I desire to come onto you, but Satan hindered me (1 Thess 2:18). Well he didn’t come, he didn’t absolutely say I will come and therefore it is written in stone and it will happen, you see.
Here’s where it says “who will” (1 Tim 2:4), it’s that weaker form of desire. So you can translate it, “God who desires that all…” so they say, since it’s only a desire, it doesn’t have to come about, see. That’s when you liken God to a man. But you are breaking the first, second and third commandments there, and the fifth, of dishonoring your Father. They break 4 commandments there by saying, when God desires something He can’t always have it. Why? What kind of nonsense is that? How could a human conceive that the Creator of the universe, desires - inside emotional feeling, He desires or wants, desires to have something, but He can’t have it. That’s blasphemy. But they don’t so. It is blasphemy, because you are bringing God down to a human level. We humans desire, I desire for my knees to get better, it’s not happening. But if God desired for His knees not to hurt, guess what? They wouldn’t hurt, but God doesn’t have knees, but if He did. So first they say His will there, is nothing more than a unobtainable weak wish. And all means just as many as, as many as do whatever other scripture say they have to do, in order to be saved. That scripture proves no such thing, as God will save all humanity (1 Tim 2:4).
Kind Regards and welcoming any continuation of this exercise, Samson.
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