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Son of Man

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myms:
I’ve been wondering why Jesus often referred to Himself in the third person as ‘the Son of Man’. I can only think that perhaps he was trying to ‘jog the memories’ of His listeners to passages from the Old Testament that refer to him as ‘the Son of Man’ (Dan 7 13-14 for example). Maybe He was communicating something about Himself – that He was the second Adam (Adam meaning human / man), son of Adam, or that He was about to be killed as a righteous man like the first son of Adam (Abel). Or perhaps I’m missing the point completely!

Any thoughts would be appreciated.

Myms

mharrell08:

--- Quote from: myms on July 29, 2010, 10:27:42 AM ---I’ve been wondering why Jesus often referred to Himself in the third person as ‘the Son of Man’. I can only think that perhaps he was trying to ‘jog the memories’ of His listeners to passages from the Old Testament that refer to him as ‘the Son of Man’ (Dan 7 13-14 for example). Maybe He was communicating something about Himself – that He was the second Adam (Adam meaning human / man), son of Adam, or that He was about to be killed as a righteous man like the first son of Adam (Abel). Or perhaps I’m missing the point completely!

Any thoughts would be appreciated.

Myms
--- End quote ---


Because He had been fashioned into a man [Phil 2:8]. The term 'son of man' is often used when referring to a man [Ps 8:4, Ps. 146:3] or one with an appearance of a man [Dan 7:13, Rev 1:13].


Hope this helps,

Marques

P.S.  Actually, Cain was Adam's first son [Gen 4:1-2]. Also, Paul refers to Christ as the 'last Adam' not the 2nd [1 Cor 15:45].

myms:
Points noted! However, I was wondering if it was a Jewish/cultural thing to refer to oneself in the third person? Did others around refer to themselves as a son of man (in the third person), if not, then I assume it must be because Jesus was making a point that His listeners may or may not have understood, which led me to wonder if He was sort of 'quoting back to them' Old Testament references to Himself that they would have been very familiar with.

Just pondering. Happy to drop it!

M

mharrell08:

--- Quote from: myms on July 29, 2010, 11:57:23 AM ---Points noted! However, I was wondering if it was a Jewish/cultural thing to refer to oneself in the third person? Did others around refer to themselves as a son of man (in the third person), if not, then I assume it must be because Jesus was making a point that His listeners may or may not have understood, which led me to wonder if He was sort of 'quoting back to them' Old Testament references to Himself that they would have been very familiar with.

Just pondering. Happy to drop it!

M
--- End quote ---


I have never read or heard of any culture that refers to themselves in the 3rd person. The Scribes & Pharisees were the utmost keepers of the law and they did not refer to themselves in the 3rd person.

As far as Jesus 'making a point', I don't know how speaking in the 3rd person does that. Though I will say the Lord often speaks of Himself in the 3rd person, particularly throughout the OT, and Christ is the God of the OT. But even then, I don't see how speaking in the 3rd person is some sort of witness that He is the God of the OT.

As far as 'back then', almost every time the term 'son of man' is used in the OT, it is NOT in reference to Christ. In the book of Ezekial alone, the Lord refers to Ezekial by 'son of man' in almost every chapter.

I hope this was relevant to what you are speaking of.


Marques

Marky Mark:
Daniel 7:13 -14:
 13 As I continued to watch the vision that night, I saw what looked like a son of man coming with the clouds of heaven, and he was presented to the Eternal God.
Dan 7:14  He was crowned king and given power and glory, so that all people of every nation and race would serve him. He will rule forever, and his kingdom is eternal, never to be destroyed.

From this verse the son of man clearly speaks of Jesus the Christ [The Messiah]. Daniel's vision indicates a man that represents both the Eternal Father and the who and what Jesus is [a humble servant],presented in the form of a man. All things being equal,the Son of man is Jesus in human form and at the same time the Son of the Father. [The heavenly One].

Mar 13:26 And then shall they be seeing the Son of Mankind coming in clouds with much power and glory.

My take on this is that Jesus is both God and human and His use of the saying the "son of man" represents a duality of what Jesus is.

John 1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Joh 1:14  The Word became a human being and lived here with us. We saw his true glory, the glory of the only Son of the Father. From him all the kindness and all the truth of God have come down to us.

1Jn 4:2  The test by which you may recognize the Spirit of God is that every spirit which acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come as man is from God,
1Jn 4:3  and that no spirit is from God which does not acknowledge this about Jesus.


Mar 10:45 For even the Son of Mankind came, not to be served, but to serve, and to give His soul a ransom for many."


Peace...Mark

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