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Author Topic: The Bible "clearly states??"  (Read 9656 times)

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cjwood

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Re: The Bible "clearly states??"
« Reply #20 on: February 12, 2012, 06:30:33 PM »
that which perishes, ceases to exist, is the CARNALITY of their hearts, their self-righteousness, their unbelief, and all else that separates them from Christ Jesus. 

claudia
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Duane

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Re: The Bible "clearly states??"
« Reply #21 on: February 13, 2012, 02:41:28 AM »
Just today I studied this verse that applies to "apolomi" (sp):

John 10:16 (CLV) "Other sheep have I which are NOT of this fold.  Those I must be leading, and they WILL BE (aorist tense)
                         hearing MY VOICE and THERE WILL BE ONE FLOCK, ONE SHEPHERD.

Checking the NKJV and KJV this is accurately stated in EACH--that flocks that are NOW NOT united--in the end WILL BE UNITED under ONE SHEPHERD.  I don't know how much plainer it can be, that ALL sheep will be (rescued/saved) under ONE SHEPHERD.
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tau

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Re: The Bible "clearly states??"
« Reply #22 on: February 13, 2012, 04:55:36 PM »
AMEN Duane, i couldn't have put it any plainer myself even if I tried  ;D John 10:16 is one of those profound scriptures that at anytime one can always reference to if one finds oneself in shaky grounds...nicely done... :D

tau
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