ACTS 4:36-37

[Kenneth Clark]

I thought that the Levites were not allowed to be land owners.  It was my understanding that Israel was to take care of the Leviticus priests for this reason.  Please help my understanding. 

[lilitalienboi16]

I thought that the Levites were not allowed to be land owners.  It was my understanding that Israel was to take care of the Leviticus priests for this reason.  Please help my understanding.

Can you please share the passages of scripture in which you believe the levites were not allowed to be land owners. It would help me in trying to understand your confusion.

Kindly,

Alex

[Kenneth Clark]

numbers 18:20; deut 10:9  and ch. 18

[lilitalienboi16]

Here are the two versus you referred to;

Numbers 18:20
King James Version (KJV)
20And the LORD spake unto Aaron, Thou shalt have no inheritance in their land, neither shalt thou have any part among them: I am thy part and thine inheritance among the children of Israel.

Numbers 18:20
New International Version (NIV)
20 The Lord said to Aaron, "You will have no inheritance in their land, nor will you have any share among them; I am your share and your inheritance among the Israelites.


Deuteronomy 10:9
King James Version (KJV)
9Wherefore Levi hath no part nor inheritance with his brethren; the LORD is his inheritance, according as the LORD thy God promised him.

Deuteronomy 10:9
New International Version (NIV)
9 That is why the Levites have no share or inheritance among their fellow Israelites; the Lord is their inheritance, as the Lord your God told them.)

Here is the passage in question:

ACTS 4:36-37
KING JAMES
And Joses, who by the apostles was surnamed Barnabas, (which is, being interpreted, The son of consolation,) a Levite, and of the country of Cyprus,
Having land, sold it, and brought the money, and laid it at the apostles' feet.

Now I am no expert when it comes to the old testament laws and the tribes but I will give you my input on the matter from what I do, with limited experience on this, see at first glance.

What I see in difference between the two passages is that the Levites were not allowed land as it belonged or pertained to the Isrealites. Not that they were allowed NO LAND period.

In Acts it does not tell us where the land was that he sold and it does not tell us what the land that he had sold was in relationship to the isrealites.

So in my opinion,  "You will have no inheritance in their land, nor will you have any share among them;" could still very well hold true under this reasoning when considering the passage in Acts.

Now is this the only explanation or is this explanation even correct? I have no clue.. this is just what stood out to me when I read these all together with the little experience in this area that I do have.

It is possible someone may have an entirely different explanation that may very well be entirely more plausible.

God bless,

Alex

[Kenneth Clark]

Thanks for the input...makes sense to me.  So maybe the Levites couldnt own any of the land promised to Israel, but were allowed to own land in the Gentile nations. 

Thanks again
God Bless

Kenneth

[lilitalienboi16]

Thanks for the input...makes sense to me.  So maybe the Levites couldnt own any of the land promised to Israel, but were allowed to own land in the Gentile nations. 

Thanks again
God Bless

Kenneth

I think you hit the nail on the head my friend! Perhaps someone else might have another perspective to add on this matter as well but glad to be able to help for now!

God bless,

Alex

[Kenneth Clark]

I wonder if all the sons of Levi were priests?

[Kat]

Hi Kenneth,

I really can't contribute to this discussion myself, but I found where Ray spoke on this a bit in his tithing article. The first article is speaking on tithing, but I thought it might apply to what you are asking as well.


http://bible-truths.com/tithing.html ---------------------

5] Numbers 18:24-28, "But the TITHES of the children of Israel, which they offer as an heave offering unto the Lord, I have given to the Levites to inherit: therefore I have said unto them, Among the children of Israel they shall have no inheritance.

And the Lord spoke unto Moses, saying, Thus speak unto the Levites, and say unto them, When ye take of the children of Israel the TITHES which I have given you from them for your inheritance, then ye shall offer up an heave offering of it for the Lord, even a TENTH part of the TITHE. And this your heave offering shall be reckoned unto you, as though it were the corn of the threshing floor, and as the fullness of the winepress. Thus ye also shall offer an heave offering unto the Lord of all your TITHES, which ye receive of the children of Israel; and ye shall give thereof the Lord's heave offering to Aaron the priest."

According to the above Scriptures, could just anyone claim to be a representative of God and therefore have Israel pay tithes to him? Let's read it again, "But the TITHES of the children of Israel ... I have given to the Levites to inherit." Now in order to be a priest one not only had to be of the tribe of Levi, but he also had to be of the family of Aaron.
v
The only food in God's house—the tabernacle, was a dozen loaves of bread. And that bread was for the Priests only, not for the tribe of Levi.


http://bible-truths.com/lake16-B.html ------------------------

But who may abide the day of His coming? And who shall stand when He appears? for He is like A REFINER'S FIRE, and like FULLERS' SOAP: And He shall sit as a refiner and purifier of silver: and He shall purify the sons of Levi..." (Mal. 3:1-3a).

Just who are the "sons of Levi" under the New Covenant? Why they are the "chosen elect FEW." Peter describes them:

"But you [those chosen for salvation in this church era] are a chosen generation, a royal PRIESTHOOD, and holy nation, a peculiar people; that you should show forth the praises of Him Who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light: Which in time past were NOT a people, but are NOW THE PEOPLE OF GOD..." (I Peter 2:9-10).
----------------------------------------------------------

mercy, peace and love
Kat

[Joel]

The Levites didn't receive any land as an inheritance, but that didn't prevent them from buying land even from the other tribes.
Example Jeremiah 32:6
And Jeremiah said, The word of the Lord came unto me saying, 7- Behold Hanameel the son of Shallum thine uncle shall come unto thee saying, Buy thee my field that is in Anathoth: for the right of redemption is thine to buy it.

It goes on in the same chapter concerning Jeremiah doing as he was instructed by the Lord. As stated in Acts 4:36-37 Barnabas had land that he sold on the Island of Cyprus, that is not part of the land of Israel. And there is a possibility the land could have been in his wife's name. Levites often down through history married women of neighboring lands.

Also the Levites were HELPERS of the priest in the service of the Lord.

Joel

[Kenneth Clark]

thanks Joel

[Joel]

You are welcome, and all praise be to the Lord Jesus Christ if he should use me in any good thing.

Joel