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Why callest ME Good...none Good but God??

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the truth:
Dave love ya Man!Jesus is good.  Jesus is God.  Don't let the answer to the rich young ruler's question be worse than the question itself.
Shaaaazam...Capitan Marvel wouldnt of thought of that!...lol..hehe.LIttle Andy Griffin there...good ole Gomer.

eagle:
"And He said to him, Why do you call Me good? No one is good except One, God" (Mat 19:17)

The word except in the dictionary:

conj.
        1. If it were not for the fact that.

The above definition corresponds with the greek, because the word that is translated except is two greek words:

ei  ( if,whether)  and
me (no,not lest)

So a translation could be like this:

"And He said to him, Why do you call Me good? No one is good without One, God" (Mat 19:17)





newgene87:

--- Quote from: Kat on July 08, 2012, 11:51:44 AM ---
Longhorn are you comparing Jesus to Paul? Here is that verse in Romans where Paul states that in his/Pauls flesh dwells no good thing.

Rom 7:18  For I know that in me (that is, in my flesh) dwells no good thing. For to will is present with me, but how to perform that which is good I do not find....

--- End quote ---

thank you Kat. you put pieces together to clarify that for me. i was headin in that way of perspective and it wasn looking good.... "Jesus, with sinful flesh, sold under sin, but he was God...hmm". but i got it now. thank you all!


--- Quote from: Dave in Tenn on July 08, 2012, 01:52:03 PM ---Jesus is good.  Jesus is God.  Don't let the answer to the rich young ruler's question be worse than the question itself.

--- End quote ---

Dave, thanks for that too; but if it was that simple; all of Ray's papers need to be at the most, TWO PARAGRAPHS. I mean yea, Jesus is good, Jesus is God...but uh, i need some clarification  ;) but thanks. with all the answers here, i can put the pieces together in view of Jesus always responded in such a wise way, PARABLE, only really the few can see it in the way of truth  8).

Again, thanks for the love towards your little little brother, okay, i'll take son  :D

And thank you eagle. i had a feeling it couldve been a play on words. But still, i see now. Even as a Man, Jesus still had to direct answers to the focul point. Either He always glorified the Father and/or referred to God first. As i was studying this, Jesus only truly revealed himself to his disciples, never more to the masses. (or i could be wrong).Jesus always gave glory to the Father, yet revealed His relationship to the Father to His Disciples. And something that Ray said that put pieces together for me. "Two people cannot make one person. But two people can make One God" (cant be too far from Rays words from His audio "Jesus is God"). To me, it makes sense. and you all just put it together for me.

Eugene

cjwood:

--- Quote from: Kat on July 08, 2012, 11:51:44 AM ---

Paul was "sold under sin," was Jesus sold under sin like Paul? Heavens forbid such a blasphemous idea. Jesus was perfect body, Spirit and soul or He could not have been the perfect sacrifice.



--- End quote ---

kat, i was confused by the bolded section above, which i noted from part of your post.  it is most likely just my misunderstanding of what you were meaning.  my first thought was that you were saying Jesus' actual physical body was perfect, meaning He was never sick while living in the flesh.  i was remembering where ray had mentioned that Jesus Himself did experience sickness.  i found the following email to ray regarding this topic.  i copied the last 2 paragraphs of that email. 

anyway, i was just trying to understand more clearly what you were saying in that particular part of your post. 

claudia


http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,7887.0.html

  He lived in the midst of scenes of sorrow, and be became intimately acquainted with its various forms, and with its evils. There is no evidence that the Redeemer was himself sick at any time - which is remarkable - but there is evidence in abundance that he was familiar with all kinds of sorrow, and that his own life was a life of grief.

    COMMENT:  In addition to this plain teaching of Isa. 53:3, Why did the Pharisees tell Jesus to "heal HIMSELF" if they saw absolutely no "sickiness or disease" in Him? How could Jesus be "healed" of a sickness which He didn't have?

    God be with you,

    Ray

the truth:
Hello again,
One verse that has so much depth to it is:.Luke 24:44 Now He said to them, "These are My words, which I speak to you, still being with you, for all must be fulfilled that is written in the law of Moses and the prophets and psalms concerning Me.

When we consider this verse with the understanding Christ never sinned.He still took on the sins of the World.And do we not think He didn't know that He would?,And Christ Knowing this prophecy...Lk-24-44.Knowing that He was to become the "Sin Offering"for mankind.Do we think Christ was thinking that he was good?He did say "Flesh and blood could not enter the Kingdom."And he had to keep His Order!1-Cor 15-27-28. Christ did say "Why have you forsaken me."The more I read and understand Lk-24-44 the more I think some people are going to be real surprised whats ahead in the milliem reign.just a thought

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