> General Discussions
The First Man(???)
dave:
--- Quote from: mharrell08 on August 14, 2012, 09:40:39 AM ---
--- Quote from: micah7:9 on August 14, 2012, 09:32:37 AM ---
--- Quote from: mharrell08 on August 14, 2012, 09:21:40 AM ---It's a parable because Paul isn't giving a literal history lesson, neither phrase is literal. First man vs Last man is a spiritual condition. Read the entire chapter and not focus on the one word 'first'.
--- End quote ---
I understand that, so then all the humanity that God created in Gen.1:26-27 is not or was not man? Paul's ICor. parable speaks of Gen. 2:7 and we disregard Gen. 1:26-27
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Paul is speaking of our spiritual condition, not who was created when. This is not the chapter to gain insight into when mankind was first created. That's not Paul's point at all in this chapter.
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I am not asking to cause a problem but I do not see 1Co 15:45 so also it hath been written, `The first man Adam became a living creature, speaking of our spiritual condition.
Paul states that, (and you say forget the "first") so "the man Adam became a living creature." Then does that mean that the humanity created in Gen. were not living creatures?
mharrell08:
Jesus is not literally the last Adam, which is the 2nd part of this parable. If you know that is a parable, why is it so hard to understand the first part is a parable as well? Yes, Paul quotes from Genesis, but he's not teaching about what people were created when.
The questions you ask about Genesis are NOT found in this chapter so why continue to seek from it? This verse comes up again and again since Ray's 2008 conference with the same theory: Paul says 'first man' regarding Adam so that contradicts every thing else. Paul also says Christ was the last Adam, yet no one ever attempts to explain how that could be literal as well. It's not half literal half parable, the entire statement is a parable.
newgene87:
--- Quote from: mharrell08 on August 14, 2012, 10:24:37 AM ---Jesus is not literally the last Adam, which is the 2nd part of this parable. If you know that is a parable, why is it so hard to understand the first part is a parable as well? Yes, Paul quotes from Genesis, but he's not teaching about what people were created when.
The questions you ask about Genesis are NOT found in this chapter so why continue to seek from it? This verse comes up again and again since Ray's 2008 conference with the same theory: Paul says 'first man' regarding Adam so that contradicts every thing else. Paul also says Christ was the last Adam, yet no one ever attempts to explain how that could be literal as well. It's not half literal half parable, the entire statement is a parable.
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ooooooooo the light bulb just clicked on ;D ;D ;D. ok, it IS a parable not a history lesson. Clear as crystal. and obviously not the point of Paul writing this. well, you solved my enigma :). Glory be to His name
regardless, how else Cain had a wife? Gen 4:7. regardless it's solved for me. Bless you harrell :)
Eugene
newgene87:
Okay - bear me with my spiritual fathers and mothers. This verse just hit me today like a train and it brought this topic back up. Again - I ONLY WANT TO STAY FAITHFUL TO THE SCRIPTURES so i'm asking you all because you all will seek to give a sound answer.
So, it's implied that God made MAN back in Genesis 1. Then Genesis 2 comes along..."... there was no human to serve the ground." (v.5) and this Man, who was Adam(man) is to be the one to serve the ground. so, OUT OF this man, is formed WOMAN.
"...Elohim is building the angular organ, which He takes from the human (man), into a woman..." (v.22)
Soooooo THIS Woman is later, after the temptation, partaking of the fruit, curses pronounced by God --- called EVE - and i'm catching this now..."for she becomes the MOTHER of all the living." (3:20)
So Eve - which i originally thought was the first Woman is called here the Mother of All Living. so um...*scratching my head*...wouldnt that make her the FIRST Woman...denying thought of the men and women in Genesis 1??? I mean, i have a Jewish Study bible which i try to refer to at times in interpreting the Hebrew Scriptures and it implies that throughout the years, Genesis 2 was just a detailed account of how man was created and Genesis 3 was how man became to be leading on through the rest of scriptures {creating in image of God (prophecy) (ch.1) --- formed of the dust of the groud (ch.2) --- becoming like God, knowing good and evil (3:22) .... so, um...doesnt Eve, being called the Mother of All Living, make her just that...the mother of all living? meaning she gave birth to what man is today?? again trying to stay faithful to the scriptures that's all. still trying to wrap my mind around men were around before Adam, which an intepretation can be seen that the man and woman of Genesis 1 was later on described out to be in Genesis 2. Like, Genesis 1,2 and 3 COULD be thousands, thousands, thousands of years leading up to Adam being formed, animals and man. or....the 6th day was a prophecy seeing God formed the animals in chapter 2 and Adam named them? and Adam and the Woman, with whom they were to till the ground. I mean i see Genesis 1:12 - "the earth brought forth grass, and herb yielding seed after his kind, and the tree yielding fruit, whose seed was in itself, after his kind" and the man comes along in chapter 2 who is to serve this. okay, im getting off track...i just noticed that Eve was the mother of all living so wouldnt that make her the first woman? Just my thoughts seeking clarification. In love
and my original "Paul" concern is over with ;)
Eugene
Gina:
That's a good, honest question.
Does it sound like a parable? "for she becomes the mother of all the living." (3:20)
What, did she cease being their mother when they were dead? You know there's more to this than is apparent to the eye. It has something to do with her seed and descendents and Jesus being savior of all and how God is not the God of the dead but of THE LIVING? Does that help? At all... ?
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