Hi. I have a question…
Let me start by saying this is not a trick question, it is simply a matter which I have been unable to resolve regarding Enoch. I have come across a small amount of material on this site concerning Enoch, I believe in Ray’s rapture paper… but am still having a bit of trouble with the subject… let me explain my dilemma…
I’m sure you all know the verses… but let type them out just in case…
Genesis 5:21-24And Enoch liveth five and sixty years, and begetteth Methuselah. And Enoch walketh habitually with God after his begetting Methuselah three hundred years, and begetteth sons and daughters. And all the days of Enoch are three hundred and sixty and five years. And Enoch walketh habitually with God,
and he is not, for God hath taken him.
Hebrews 11:5-6, 13-16By faith Enoch was translated --
not to see death, and was not found, because God did translate him; for before his translation he had been testified to -- that he had pleased God well, and apart from faith it is impossible to please well, for it behoveth him who is coming to God to believe that He is, and to those seeking Him He becometh a rewarder.
In faith died all these, not having received the promises, but from afar having seen them, and having been persuaded, and having saluted [them], and having confessed that strangers and sojourners they are upon the earth, for those saying such things make manifest that they seek a country; and if, indeed, they had been mindful of that from which they came forth, they might have had an opportunity to return, but now they long for a better, that is, an heavenly, wherefore God is not ashamed of them, to be called their God, for He did prepare for them a city.
Ok, In Genesis Enoch is taken by God… this is further expounded upon in Hebrews… By faith Enoch was translated NOT TO SEE DEATH, and was not found, because God did translate him…
But then only a few verses down the chapter says that ALL of these mentioned before DIED (How could Enoch die if he was “not to see death”…
This “seems” like a contradiction, which I am pretty sure is probably a translation error… the above verses are quoted from Young’s Literal Translation…. I attempted to see how these words, “death”, “not”, “translated” were further amplified in definition with my Strong’s Concordance, but am still left with confusion on this matter…
Any thoughts?