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Remarrige

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Dave in Tenn:
Romans chapter 7.

Read all the words.  You'll either see it or you won't.  Arguing will do nothing for you.

Nelson Boils:

It is unfortunate Ray didn't get around explaining his statement,I know he would've been able to explain it fully.Anyway,it's no biggy!

For the meantime I'll stick to what I see.

Anyway no problem,Thanx Gina.

Gina:

--- Quote from: Nelson Boils on June 08, 2015, 05:44:15 PM ---

It is unfortunate Ray didn't get around explaining his statement,I know he would've been able to explain it fully.Anyway,it's no biggy!

For the meantime,I'll stick to my guns.

Anyway no problem,Thanx Gina.

--- End quote ---

You're welcome, Nelson! :)

Oatmeal:
I also cannot understand the argument that 'fornication' in Matthew 19:9 = something inclusive of adultery occurring after the marriage ceremony.   

Looking at Matthew 5:31-32, Matthew 19:3-12, Mark 10:2-12, and Luke 16:15-18:

If a man wrongfully divorcing his wife results in adultery, committed by the man who divorces and then marries another, committed by the man who marries the divorced woman, and committed by the divorced woman (if she marries another?), is Jesus making it very clear to us that such a plethora of adultery has NOT annulled the original marriage covenant and we can understand the truth of this because such a plethora of adultery could only be occurring if the original marriage covenant has NOT been annulled?

AND has it also been made clear to us that the divorce (the certificate of divorce) PLUS the adultery has NOT annulled the original marriage covenant?  The woman (at the beginning 'the innocent party') remains in a continuous state of committing adultery, and also the man that marries her, even though her first husband is now in a state of continuously committing adultery himself AND a certificate of divorce has been issued in regard to the original marriage.

If the answer to the two questions, one in each of the above two paragraphs, is a 'yes', then how is one able to define 'fornication' in Matthew 19:9 as something inclusive of adultery + something that occurs after the marriage ceremony + something that can annul a marriage through the method of divorce, if Jesus in the very same sentence said that divorce + adultery cannot annul a marriage?

Thanks

Oatmeal

Dave in Tenn:
We've hacked through this issue recently and I don't want to see a repeat. 

Please try to remember while you are being 'lawyerly' that no scripture is it's own interpretation.



   

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