1 Peter written to Gentiles

[charliek]

Hey everyone:  I'm new to these discussions and have been listening to  and studying both Ray's and Mike's audios & articles for some time now.  As a former dispensationalist, they have really opened my eyes.  Which brings me to my question.  In Ray's audio message "What is the Gospel of the Kingdom" given in Mobile, AL in Nov 05, when he was commenting on 1Pet2:9 he mentions that Peter in his first epistle wrote to the Gentiles.  Where does he get that from?  Does he understand the "strangers scattered" to be Gentiles?  I've always believed that both letters were written to Jews.  

Charlie

[Kevin]

Continue reading down. Read verse 10 of the same chapter.God bless

[ertsky]

i always thought it was written to me



Rom 2:28  For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
Rom 2:29  But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.



Eph 2:12  That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
Eph 2:13  But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
Eph 2:14  For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;


Rom 2:10  But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:
Rom 2:11  For there is no respect of persons with God.