You stated that the original manuscripts did not use punctuation. So who gets to decide where that comma goes? Just curious, because where you put helps out your argument and where it is in all the Bibles I have seen helps those trying who are oposing you. The reason I want to know is because I having a discussion about this with a Preacher.
Thanks
TD
Dear TD:
You will never ever ever win an argument with a Christian preacher. If the thief went to a place called paradise which is interpreted to be heaven, then tell your pastor that this verse would contradict HUNDREDS of other plain Scriptures.
Example: The soul is mortal, not immortal (Ezek. 18;4 & 20). Dead people must be resurrected before they will ever live again. Jesus did not go to heaven on "that very day" seeing that He was dead in the tomb until Sunday morning. After His resurrection He told Mary that He HAD NOT AS YET ASCENDED to the Father, etc., etc., etc., etc., etc. So put the comma where you will, but you will contradict HUNDREDS of Scriptures if you try to get the thief into heaven BEFORE resurrection, BEFORE judgement, etc., etc.,etc.
God be with you,
Ray