If you believe that life and consciousness do not exist after death according to Ecclesiastes 9:5 how would you explain Isa. 14:9-11 Ezek: 32:21and Rev.6:9-11, comparing scripture with scripture. God Bless Eddie
Dear Eddie:
Some things can be "explained," but may not be able to be "proved." I can tell you that all of these Scriptures are in "figurative" rather than "literal" language, but that does not means that you will believe me, anymore than when I showed "plucking out one's eye or cutting of one's hand" in accordance with Christ's admonition concerning offensive sins, was believed by those who read it. I received comments that these admonitions were indeed LITERAL, even though they conceded that we are not to LITERALLY pluck out our physical eyes, etc.
How, for example does "pomp" go to the grave (or sheol)? It is, of course, FIGURATIVE. If these verses in figurative language are literal, then we must concede that such verses as Gen. 4:10 are literal: "...the VOICE of your brother's BLOOD cries unto Me from the ground." Someone might actually claim that blood is immortal, and although spilled on the ground, and completely dried up, nonetheless, is still alive and......AND POSSESSES VOCAL CORDS AND CAN SPEAK!!
God be with you,
Ray
