Were The words "with one accord" in the KJV added in Acts 2:1?
Marcus
Yes, Marcus, it appears that this is found in most manuscripts and is
translated in all of my better sources for such things: Rotherham's,
Concordant, Emphat Diaglott, etc.
It means: UNITED, WITH ONE MIND, IN ONE ACCORD, UNANIMOUSLY.
Which only makes sense. For sure they were all at the same place. Now why would
they all be there if they were not of the same mind and purpose?
God be with you,
Ray
