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Sermon on the mount. Taught to the disiples or multitude

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andrevan:
"And it came to pass, when Jesus [had] ended these words, the multitudes were astonished at his teaching" YLT.

After Jesus had said all these things, sometime later the multitudes heard these sayings, and were astonished at His teaching.

That's a possible explanation as I read it.

God bless.
Andrevan.

Bill:

--- Quote from: andrevan on April 14, 2007, 12:44:39 AM ---"And it came to pass, when Jesus [had] ended these words, the multitudes were astonished at his teaching" YLT.

After Jesus had said all these things, sometime later the multitudes heard these sayings, and were astonished at His teaching.

That's a possible explanation as I read it.

God bless.
Andrevan.

--- End quote ---

Interesting, thanks Andrevan

gmik:
What I never understood was the logistics of the whole thing.  Exactly how did Jesus' voice amplify to the thousands listening? I went to Jesus 86 in Pennsylvania and I couldn't hear anything if the mike wasn't turned on!!  It was a casual camping atmos-phere and people were walking, talking, babies crying, children running etc.  No way could you hear anyone talking from any distance at all.

It makes sense to me that He was speaking to the disciples.

Kat:

Hi Bill,


--- Quote ---but he did not explain Mat 7:28 which what I was hoping to get help on.
--- End quote ---

Well I was looking at this scripture, and we see Jesus went up into a mountain and it is there that the disciples came to Him.  I believe the multitude was gathered below and up on the mountain He was with only His disciples.

Mat 5:1 But, seeing the multitudes, He went up into a mountain,—and, when He had taken a seat, His disciples came unto Him;

Then later in verse 28, that you were referring to, He was with the multitude again.

Mat 7:28 And it came to pass, when Jesus ended these words, with astonishment were the multitudes being struck at His teaching;

Now we also have Luke's version of this same sermon with the disciples and the multitude.  And here I think it may show Jesus wasn't speaking to them at the same time? 
It starts out with Jesus calling all His disciples together and choosing out the 12.  Is this the match to Matt. 5:1?

Luke 6:13 And, when it became day, He called His disciples, and chose from them, twelve, whom also he named, Apostles,—

I think verse 13 is when Jesus was up on the mountain with all the disciples.
Then it shows that He came down off the mountain to where the multitude was.  Would this be with He spoke to the multitude, after He had spoken to the disciples?

Luke 6:17 and, coming down with them, He stood upon a level place, also a great multitude of His disciples,—and a great throng of the people, from all Judaea and Jerusalem and the sea-coast of Tyre and Zidon, who had come to hearken unto Him and to be healed from their diseases;

But when we go down to verse 20, He is speaking to the disciples, so is this referring back to when He speaks with His disciples?

Luke 6:20 And, He, lifting up his eyes towards His disciples, was saying:—Happy, ye destitute, for, yours, is the kingdom of God.

Then when you come down to verse 39, is this now when He starts to speak to the multitude?  As it says in a parable He spoke to 'them,' before if referred to His disciples.

Luke 6:39 He spake, moreover, a parable also, unto them: Can, the blind, guide, the blind? will not, both, fall into, a ditch?

In Matt. there is no division between what He said up on the mountain and then when He came down and spoke more, to the great multitude there.  It seems like it was the same day and was like a two part sermon that was just put together in matt.
Well that is just what I was looking at, and just thought I would see if it makes sense to you  :)

mercy, peace, and love
Kat

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