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Author Topic: Difinition of "Hell"  (Read 10511 times)

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Brett

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Difinition of "Hell"
« on: May 15, 2007, 02:04:34 AM »

Hello!

I have not been in post for while. My hard drive wore out. I was very discourage, but I am okay. Not very easy, thought!

Anyway, I was ready Lake of Fire Series "B. Hell: Sheol Translated Sheol", Ray showed of two different dictionary books of "Hell", one is 4 centuries ago and other is 21 century. See below then I will ask one question:

There is NO Scriptural or rational reason for translating the Hebrew word sheol into the English word "hell" at all—NONE! And there surely is no reason to use the word hell in light of the fact that the Old English meaning of this word has been grossly perverted by the Christian church beyond recognition over the past four centuries. Let’s look at our definitions once more:

The "hell" as the English used it in everyday life in the 1600’s:

Webster’s Twentieth Century Dictionary: "hell, n. [ME, helle; AS, hell, hell, from helan, to cover, conceal.]"

The "hell" of the 21st Century:

The American Heritage Collegiate Dictionary: "The abode of condemned souls and devils...the place of eternal punishment for the wicked after death, presided over by Satan…a state of separation from God…a place of evil, misery, discord, or destruction …torment, anguish."

Does anyone believe that these two definitions of "hell" have anything whatsoever in common with each other? Then how is it even in the realm of possibility that the Christian definition of hell today can be a translation for a word that is also to this day, translated three times as "pit," and thirty-one times as "grave." Am I going to fast for anyone?
[Caps are mine]


I am curious, King James wrote "Hell" in the Bible, did he believe that Hell mean cover or conceal but not like today people say that Hell is pain in fire eternal? I am just wondering what did King James believe about Hell meaning. Do you know?

Thanks!

Brett
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seminole

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #1 on: May 15, 2007, 01:20:33 PM »

I guess you might combine them to be a covering over the fiery pit???? I don't know what King James thought.
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mari_et_pere

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #2 on: May 16, 2007, 12:22:46 PM »

You guys aren't considering that King James actually made the King James Bible right?

Matt
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Kat

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #3 on: May 16, 2007, 02:14:53 PM »


Hi Brett,

Here is an excerpt from the first part(A) in the Hell series.  I think it shows the deception used by scholars to bring in the teaching of a place called hell, where people will be tormented for eternity.

http://bible-truths.com/lake16-A.html --------------------

The word "hell" is an Old English word that was used to translate several words found in the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts. What words? And why did they choose to use the Old English word "hell" as a translation? We shall see that it had absolutely nothing to do with scholarship, but everything to do with forcing pagan religion into the teachings of Jesus Christ. You don’t have to take my word for it; you will be able to judge for yourself as we go through it.

Here are the words for which "hell" was inserted as a "translation" into English:

The Hebrew word sheol (31 times)

The Greek word gehenna (12 times)

The Greek word hades (10 times)

The Greek word tartarus (1 time)

That’s it.

Every time the word "hell" is found in the King James Bible it is translated from one of these four words. We find the word "hell" 31 times in the KJV Old Testament and 23 times in the KJV New Testament for a total of 54 times. Later we will look at all 54 verses containing the word "hell," plus the 31 times that sheol is translated as "grave."

 Not only is there absolutely no justifiable reason to translate sheol 31 times as "hell," but there is no justifiable reason to translate this word as hell, not even once!

As we go through the 31 Scriptures in which the KJV uses the word "grave," it will become abundantly clear that "grave" is the proper translation. But when we come to the 31 times that KJV uses the word "hell" to translate this same Hebrew word, it will also become abundantly clear that word, "GRAVE" should have been used in all of those 31 verses as well. Yes, the "context" will show that "grave" or its literal meaning of "the UNSEEN" can be consistently used in all 62 verses without jeopardizing or violating the context.

While it is true that a number of verses use sheol—the unseen, the grave, in a poetic or figurative sense, absolutely nowhere is sheol used to represent a place of life, consciousness, fire, or torture—nowhere, absolutely nowhere.
-----------------------------------------------------

mercy, peace, and love
Kat

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Brett

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #4 on: May 17, 2007, 02:35:01 AM »

Hi Kat,

Thanks for the share. I was thinking that King James never believe Hell mean literal fire torture alive like today's Christendom, but he believed is 'cover' or 'conceal', it is similar as 'unseen' because he wrote 'Hell' 31 times in O.T. You know, if King James did believe 'Hell' mean literal fire torture alive, then why would he dare to write about Job who said made bed in Hell himself and David said that when he is in Hell, he asked God not to abandoned him. Know what I mean? In 4 centuries, 'Hell' meaning is big different than our day of Hell meaning. I am not saying I am right about King Jame, but I was observation of King Jame's writing in O.T. and N.T. where wicked and righteous in 'Hell', that to me, it is obviously that it is impossible KJ believe Hell is literal fire alive because of that. But the idea of Hell belong to literal fire alive was from Christendom, not KJ. That is how I observed. Just interesting. In NIV, ASV, ESV, etc. never write 'Hell' in O.T. Why? Because Job, David, and whoever in O.T. said that themselves and everyone (include wicked and righteous) would go to 'Hell' until God raise them from dead, so the NIV, ASV, etc. thought that it would never make sense if they want to write 'Hell' in O.T. because they believe 'Hell' is literal fire alive. Of course, Sheol and hades belong to 'unseen' as 'dead', but the synonym of 'unseen' is 'cover/conceal'.

I am wondering KJ wrote 'eternal', in 4 centuries, was same meaning as today 'endless'? Or did 4 centuries, their definition of 'eternal' is period of time or age? Just curious, if you know any? I remember 'gay' meaning 'happy' in many years ago (I don't know what year or century), but now day, 'gay' mean 'homosexual'. I notice some or many words of meaning in Old English but no longer meaning now day like 'gay'.

Thanks!

Brett



Matt, I am not sure what your question mean? Can you explain little bit more?

Brett

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CDJ

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #5 on: May 17, 2007, 06:21:25 AM »

You guys aren't considering that King James actually made the King James Bible right?

Matt

Hi Matt,
I don't believe anybody does. Do you rememeber that movie, TROY? Achilles (Brad Pitt) stands before the king, after the beach of Troy was taken, and although Achilles' men took it, the king himself claimed victory, because it's the king's name that lives on, not Achilles'.

Brett,

Regarding the old word "hell". Kat laid out the amount of times that this word "hell" was translated in the KJV. You'll be pleasantly surprised to check out any and all translations that you can find, and hardly any of them have the same amount of "hells" in either the OT or NT. That confirms suspicion regarding this word "hell", and confirms what we learn here on BT. If "hell" was such a sure-fire name ('scuse the pun), surely all translations would have been in agreement where to use it. Take a name like "Moses" - do translations disagree?

Here's something else I found, out of interest. If this word "hell" is regarded as about 400 years old, and branching of from the word "helan", where did it come from, to say "hell"? Well, throughout my studies, I came upon Norse Mythology, well-over 400 years old, and in this pagan mythology was a god by the name of Loki. Aparantly he was made of fire. Now this Loki character had a daughter, the goddess of torment and punishment - guess what her name was? Her name was Hel...

She, Hel, was ruler of the place with her same name, Hel. Here's what Wikipedia says regarding the realm of Hel, in Norse Mythology...
Quote
Wikipedia - Hel (Realm)
In Norse mythology, the realm Hel[1] shares a name with its ruler, Hel. As described in Snorri Sturluson's Prose Edda it is a place thronged with the shivering and shadowy spectres of those who have died ingloriously of disease or in old age. Hel is also home to dishonourable people who have broken oaths... ...Hel is said to be a hall with a roof woven from the spines of serpents which drip poison down onto those who wade in the rivers of blood below. The people who dwell in the halls are given nothing but goat's urine to quench their thirst... ...It is similar to Hades and the River Styx from Greek mythology. The name Hel comes from the same Proto-Germanic source as the English word hell...

Quote
Wikipedia - Hades
...Early church fathers defended this view of the afterlife against the view that the soul went immediately to heaven or to hell after the death of the body[4]... ...In mainstream Western Christianity, however, it has largely been replaced by the concept of the soul going straight to hell, heaven, or (in Roman Catholicism) purgatory...

The word "hell" and the "eternal punishment" smells of paganism. Under 'Universalism' on Wikipedia they had the following to say...
Quote
Wikipedia - Universalism
In Christianity, Universalism refers to the belief that all humans will be saved from eternal damnation or annihilation in hell. A related doctrine, apokatastasis, is the belief that all mortal beings will be reconciled to God, including Satan and his fallen angels. Universalism was a fairly commonly held view among theologians in early Christianity. The two major theologians opposing it were Tertullian and Augustine. In the first five or six centuries of Christianity there were six known theological schools, of which four (Alexandria, Antioch, Cesarea, and Edessa or Nisibis) were universalist, one (Ephesus) accepted conditional immortality, and one (Carthage or Rome) taught the endless punishment of the lost.[1] In later centuries, universalism has become very much a minority position in the major branches of Christianity, though it has a long history of prominent adherents.

Guys, this is just for interest sake, coz I don't want to take away, add or change anything that is learnt on BT. Everything boils back to the Egyptians - along the way, every little or big civilization, had it's input...

Walk strong
CDJ :-)


« Last Edit: May 17, 2007, 07:42:44 AM by CDJ »
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kudeta

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #6 on: May 17, 2007, 08:57:35 AM »


Quote from: CDJ
Regarding the old word "hell". Kat laid out the amount of times that this word "hell" was translated in the KJV. You'll be pleasantly surprised to check out any and all translations that you can find, and hardly any of them have the same amount of "hells" in either the OT or NT. That confirms suspicion regarding this word "hell", and confirms what we learn here on BT. If "hell" was such a sure-fire name ('scuse the pun), surely all translations would have been in agreement where to use it. Take a name like "Moses" - do translations disagree?

I believe you are misunderstanding Brett.  He's not disagreeing with how inappropriate it is to translate the words Sheol and Hades to "Hell" today.  The modern definition makes that ridiculous.

He's asking whether the meaning of "Hell" has changed significantly in the last four hundred years, becuase if "Hell" was better aligned with its root (helan, meaning to cover or conceal) in KJ times, then it might not have been such a bad translation back then.

blessings,
 - John
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TimothyVI

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #7 on: May 17, 2007, 09:10:09 AM »

You are correct Kudeta, about what Brett was asking.
I think that the translators of the KJV bible lived during the time that
hell meant to cover or conceal. But they needed one word to describe
"The abode of condemned souls and devils...the place of eternal punishment for the wicked after death, presided over by Satan…a state of separation from God…a place of evil, misery, discord, or destruction …torment, anguish."

No word existed to adequately describe such a place so they picked a word, hell.
Then they merely changed the definition of that word to fit their needs.
The church has changed the definitions of many words over the centuries.

Strongs concordance gives us the christian definition, so it didn't take long for that to
become the accepted definition.

Tim
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mari_et_pere

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #8 on: May 17, 2007, 11:28:40 AM »

Quote
Matt, I am not sure what your question mean? Can you explain little bit more?

Brett,
I was just joking around because you guys were talking about the KJV and made it sound like King James was the one making the KJV, but it was just a misplaced joke. I was just kidding around. So....n/m LOL.

Matt
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CDJ

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #9 on: May 17, 2007, 12:38:03 PM »

Hi Matt :-) LOL  ;D

Brett, John, Tim  :D ...that's probably why I should never open a column "Ask Dr CDJ" coz I sometimes completely miss the point  ;D


Old Bibles - Matthew 16:18... (hades)

"...et ego dico tibi quia tu es Petrus et super hanc petram aedificabo ecclesiam meam et portae inferi non praevalebunt adversum eam..."
The Latin Vulgate (425)
"...And Y seie to thee, that thou art Petre, and on this stoon Y schal bilde my chirche, and the yatis of helle schulen not haue miyt ayens it...."
The Wycliffe Bible (1395)
"...And I saye also vnto the yt thou arte Peter: and apon this rocke I wyll bylde my congregacion. And the gates of hell shall not prevayle ageynst it...."
Tyndale New Testament (1526)
"...And I saie to ye: Thou art Peter, & vpo this rocke wil I builde my cogregacion: and ye gates of hell shal not preuayle agaynst it...."
Miles Coverdale Bible (1535)
"...And I say also vnto thee, that thou art Peter, and vpon this rocke I wyll buylde my congregation: And the gates of hell shall not preuayle agaynst it...."
The Bishop's Bible (1568)
"...And I say also vnto thee, that thou art Peter, and vpon this rocke I will builde my Church: and ye gates of hel shal not ouercome it...."
The Geneva Bible (1587)
"...And I say also vnto thee, that thou art Peter, and vpon this rocke I will build my Church: and the gates of hell shall not preuaile against it...."
King James Version (1611)
"...and I tell thee likewise, that thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will hereafter build my church: and death shall not prevail against it...."
Daniel Mace New Testament (1729)
"...And I say also to thee, Thou art Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it...."
Wesley's New Testament (1755)

Quote
Hello (very interesting article) "...In Greek mythology, hel also happens to be in the name of Jason’s scorned wife, Helles, in the story of the Golden Fleece (which is often read as an allegory about the sun). If one pursues the Greek associations with the root hel, it is not possible to avoid its connection to the ancient Egyptian her (since the Egyptians used R and L interchangeably); that avenue of inquiry provides some puzzling but rewarding links to light and fire. To name the major one, the Egyptian name for the sun god is Heru, which could also be read Helu, connecting the Egyptian Horus with the Greek Helios (and also to our word "hero").


Pertaining to Brett's original question, whether King James (or his translators :-) ) wanted the word to mean "to conceal, hide", in my opinion, why didn't all of them just use helan?

Walk strong
CDJ :-)
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Kat

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #10 on: May 17, 2007, 01:08:12 PM »


I found this in the part A of the Hell series, it adds a little to what has already been said  :)

http://bible-truths.com/lake16-A.html

TWO DEFINITIONS OF HELL

First the “hell” of four centuries ago:

Webster’s Twentieth Century Dictionary:

“hell, n. [ME, helle; AS, hell, hell, from helan, to cover, conceal.]”

Second the “hell” of the 21st Century:

The American Heritage Collegiate Dictionary:

“The abode of condemned souls and devils... the place of eternal punishment for the wicked after death, presided over by Satan… a state of separation from God… a place of evil, misery, discord, or destruction… torment, anguish.”

If the English word “helan/helle/hell”  had retained its Middle English/Anglo Saxon meaning, of to “hide,” “cover,” and “conceal,” it might still be an acceptable (albeit it not the best) translation of “sheol/hades.”  But as this word has long since taken on the meaning of the pagan teachings concerning the realm of the dead and the supposed evils contained therein, it is absolutely out of place as a translation of any Hebrew or Greek word found in the manuscripts.

My how times have changed. Tell a person to “go to hell” today, and it is an insult of the highest level. Tell a person back in the dark ages of England to “go to hell” and he would probably go to a cool cellar and bring back some potatoes for dinner. For that is where they stored potatoes—in hell.
--------------------------------------------------------------

mercy, peace, and love
Kat

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YellowStone

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #11 on: May 17, 2007, 01:38:27 PM »

Kat,

I thank you for the 12th century meaning.

I read once (but could not find again) :(  that the word 'hell' was once a term used for the place to store potatoes, ie. Dark, covered and concealed. Oh and I had better mention, COLD!

The "modern" meaning is so well intrenched, that man has pretty much rewritten history.

Their has to be a lesson in that too!   :D

Thanks my sister,

Darren
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hillsbororiver

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #12 on: May 17, 2007, 02:13:53 PM »


I read once (but could not find again) :(  that the word 'hell' was once a term used for the place to store potatoes, ie. Dark, covered and concealed. Oh and I had better mention, COLD!

Darren

Hi Darren,

I can help you with that you read it here;
http://bible-truths.com/lake16-A.html

TWO DEFINITIONS OF HELL

First the “hell” of four centuries ago:

Webster’s Twentieth Century Dictionary:

“hell, n. [ME, helle; AS, hell, hell, from helan, to cover, conceal.]”

Second the “hell” of the 21st Century:

The American Heritage Collegiate Dictionary:

“The abode of condemned souls and devils... the place of eternal punishment for the wicked after death, presided over by Satan… a state of separation from God… a place of evil, misery, discord, or destruction… torment, anguish.”

If the English word “helan/helle/hell”  had retained its Middle English/Anglo Saxon meaning, of to “hide,” “cover,” and “conceal,” it might still be an acceptable (albeit it not the best) translation of “sheol/hades.”  But as this word has long since taken on the meaning of the pagan teachings concerning the realm of the dead and the supposed evils contained therein, it is absolutely out of place as a translation of any Hebrew or Greek word found in the manuscripts.

My how times have changed. Tell a person to “go to hell” today, and it is an insult of the highest level. Tell a person back in the dark ages of England to “go to hell” and he would probably go to a cool cellar and bring back some potatoes for dinner. For that is where they stored potatoes—in hell.

His Peace to you Brother,

Joe

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mari_et_pere

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #13 on: May 19, 2007, 03:13:04 AM »

So if I want potatoes I can just go to hell right?  :o  LOL sorry I could not resist that!!!  ;D

No but in one of Ray's articles he says that they used to refer to basements as hell. I think it was Ray. I read it somewhere recently anywho.....

Matt
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Deborah-Leigh

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #14 on: May 20, 2007, 02:44:53 PM »


From LOF Installment XV1 - Part A

HELL IS A WORD AND A DOCTRINE


Hell is not only a word found in many Versions; it is also a doctrine based on that word. The doctrine of hell is an invention of men and is nowhere found in the Hebrew or Greek manuscripts. As the King James is the most well known of all versions, and because Christendom as a whole embraces the pagan doctrine of “eternal torture in a place called hell,” it behooves us to deal with this subject in some detail.

Protestant theologians cringe at the accusation that their beloved “inerrant” King James Bible owes much to Jerome’s Catholic Volgate, and to the Latin language as well.

Much of the King James is “Latin” and not “English.” It is from the Latin that our Bibles contain such words as substance, redemption, justification, sanctification, perdition, perish, punish, torment, damnation, dispensation, predestination, revelation, priest, minister, congregation, propitiation, disciple, parable, eternal etc. Although not found in Scripture, the word trinity is also Latin.

That is not to say that theses are not perfectly fine words, they are, but we must be aware that the meaning of words change, and when words change to the very opposite of what they meant hundreds or thousands of years ago, it behooves us to take note of those changes as I am doing in this paper. The Latin aeternum and eternalis (from which we get “eternal”) never meant “endlessness” or “without beginning and end” in the first century AD. Neither did the common use of the word hell back in Old England, mean a place where living people are tortured in literal everlasting fire.

But make no mistake about it; the King James Bible is “Catholic” in many ways.
Anyone with a copy of the 1611 King James Bible knows that it contains the fourteen books of the Apocrypha still retained by Catholic Bibles to this day. Protestants who teach the “inerrancy” and “flawlessness” of the King James have a difficult time explaining why fourteen whole books have been cut out of this “inerrant” Translation. Those of us who try to teach the proper use of just two King James errors (hell & eternal) are met with frightening opposition. Yet they drop FOURTEEN WHOLE BOOKS from their own Bible without a blush.



For me the above study points to the King James translators being not so naive and far from guiltless in bringing what they knew to be pagan doctrines into the translations of the Manuscripts they perverted with doctrines of convenience and heresy.

Peace to you

Arcturus :)
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YellowStone

  • Guest
Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #15 on: May 20, 2007, 04:06:39 PM »

Good point sister Arcturus :)

The NIV does a little better job of the translation of words into Hell.

Job 26:6 [KJV]  Hell [is] naked before him, and destruction hath no covering. 
Job 26:6 [NIV] Death is naked before God; Destruction llies uncovered.

Actually, the word "Hell" appears only 14 times in the NIV compared to 54 times in the King James.

Following is a breakdown of the three Greek words translated to mean hell and the Scriptures in the NIV from which they come.

(hell)
occurs 14 times in 14 verses in the NIV

The Greek meanings may surprise many :)

Hell (12 times) = geenna {gheh'-en-nah}

Hell is the place of the future punishment call "Gehenna" or "Gehenna of fire". This was originally the valley of Hinnom, south of Jerusalem, where the filth and dead animals of the city were cast out and burned; a fit symbol of the wicked and their future destruction.



Hell (once) = Hades {hah'-dace}
1) name Hades or Pluto, the god of the lower regions
2) Orcus, the nether world, the realm of the dead
3) later use of this word: the grave, death, hell


++++
In Biblical Greek it is associated with Orcus, the infernal regions, a dark and dismal place in the very depths of the earth, the common receptacle of disembodied spirits. Usually Hades is just the abode of the wicked, Lu. 16:23, Rev. 20:13,14; a very uncomfortable place. TDNT.


Hell (once) = Tartaroo {tar-tar-o'-o}

1) the name of the subterranean region, doleful and dark, regarded by the ancient Greeks as the abode of the wicked dead, where they suffer punishment for their evil deeds; it answers to Gehenna of the Jews
2) to thrust down to Tartarus, to hold captive in Tartarus



To your point Arcturus, were the translators interested most in truth or tradition (pagan belief)

Clearly, the HELL fallacy is the greatest lie known to man, bar none. I wonder what the masses would think if they read the meanings above, and applied them to the Scriptures below.


NIV Scriptures using Hell

Mat 5:22 But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother*will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to his brother, 'Raca,' is answerable to the Sanhedrin. But anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell [Gehenna].  

Mat 5:29 If your right eye causes you to sin, gouge it out and throw it away. It is better for you to lose one part of your body than for your whole body to be thrown into hell [Gehenna].    

Mat 5:30 And if your right hand causes you to sin, cut it off and throw it away. It is better for you to lose one part of your body than for your whole body to go into hell [Gehenna]  

Mat 10:28 Do not be afraid of those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Rather, be afraid of the One who can destroy both soul and body in hell [Gehenna]  

Mat 18:9 And if your eye causes you to sin, gouge it out and throw it away. It is better for you to enter life with one eye than to have two eyes and be thrown into the fire of hell [Gehenna]  

Mat 23:15 "Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You travel over land and sea to win a single convert, and when he becomes one, you make him twice as much a son of hell [Gehenna] as you are.    

Mat 23:33 "You snakes! You brood of vipers! How will you escape being condemned to hell [Gehenna]  

Mar 9:43 If your hand causes you to sin, cut it off. It is better for you to enter life maimed than with two hands to go into hell [Gehenna], where the fire never goes out.    

Mar 9:45 And if your foot causes you to sin, cut it off. It is better for you to enter life crippled than to have two feet and be thrown into hell [Gehenna].    

Mar 9:47 And if your eye causes you to sin, pluck it out. It is better for you to enter the kingdom of God with one eye than to have two eyes and be thrown into hell [Gehenna]  

Luk 12:5 But I will show you whom you should fear: Fear him who, after the killing of the body, has power to throw you into hell [Gehenna]. Yes, I tell you, fear him.   

Luk 16:23 In hell, hades where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side.    


Jam 3:6 The tongue also is a fire, a world of evil among the parts of the body. It corrupts the whole person, sets the whole course of his life on fire, and is itself set on fire by hell [Hades]

2Pe 2:4 For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but sent them to hell, [Tartaroo] putting them into gloomy dungeons* to be held for judgment;   

This has been a very rewarding Study.

Thanks for a great thread everyone,

Inchrist with love,
Darren
« Last Edit: May 20, 2007, 04:07:26 PM by YellowStone »
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Brett

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #16 on: May 20, 2007, 05:25:38 PM »

Thanks Arcturus and Darren for the share.

I am not easy understand the threads because I don't see the answer like "Yes, KJ believed 'Hell' mean fire torture." Or "No, KJ did not believe 'Hell' mean fire torture, but cover or conceal."

I will repeat question, also I added Jerome too.



Did the Jerome (Vulgate Bible) believe 'inferni' mean Hell fire torture as today's Christendom?

Did KJ believe 'Hell' mean fire torture as today's Christendom?



Ray said that Jerome did not believe "aeternam" mean endless. So, to me, Jerome supported Greek 'aion/aionios' belong to age or eon. Then later in hundred years from Jerome, the Catholic changed meaning of 'aeternam' into 'endless', not longer meaning of age or eon like from 'gay' mean 'happy', now 'gay' has changed mean is 'homesexual', and soon 'gay' will not longer mean 'happy'.

Did KJ believe 'eternal', 'everlasting' belong to endless as Jerome?

Because, I love history and am very curious about thousands years the words meaning changed into meaning now day. I am looking for sincerely Old English dictionary.

I know it is not easy answer, maybe I will send Ray in e-mail, but I rather first to see if anyone know the history of language meaning and change meaning .

Thanks again!

Brett
« Last Edit: May 21, 2007, 02:12:41 AM by Brett »
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Robert

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #17 on: May 20, 2007, 05:33:37 PM »

I am reading this discussion, and thought I’d throw in my 2 cent’s worth. King James, knew that major religious division within England could have repercussions on his rule. His bible was an attempt to appeal to the Puritans, Presbyterians and Catholics, yet still vindicate the Church of England (by its very name, reinforce the Anglican belief in monarch-Pope). The Bible was to vindicate, not change existing belief.
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CDJ

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #18 on: May 21, 2007, 07:42:32 AM »

Good morning Brett,


1) Did the Jerome (Vulgate Bible) believe 'inferni' mean Hell fire torture as today's Christendom?

My opinion: The Vulgate didn't use "inferni" but rather "inferi"... here is a link for you to a Latin Dictionary (LINK) - No, it doesn't seem like it, but I haven't checked out all - they do however use the word 'gehennae'

2) Did KJ believe 'Hell' mean fire torture as today's Christendom?

My opinion: Yes, they believed "hell" means fire torture. Why? Because they used "hell" for hades, sheol, gehenna and tartarus - All four. If they didn't believe in fire torture, they wouldn't have used "hell" for all 4 old words...



Here's links to some helpful sites...

Old Bibles
Online Etymology Dictionary
Old English Dictionary


Regards
CDJ :-)

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Brett

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Re: Difinition of "Hell"
« Reply #19 on: May 22, 2007, 01:16:09 AM »

CDJ,

Thanks very much for the share. It is some insightful, very well. I think Jerome never believed 'inferi' belong to Hell as Christendom, did he?

You have very good point about KJV:

2) Did KJ believe 'Hell' mean fire torture as today's Christendom?

My opinion: Yes, they believed "hell" means fire torture. Why? Because they used "hell" for hades, sheol, gehenna and tartarus - All four. If they didn't believe in fire torture, they wouldn't have used "hell" for all 4 old words...


Yeah, it looks like KJV believed Hell is fire torture because of same word he wrote 'Hell' from Greek gehenna and tartarus, which was literal fire as 'garbage'. Of course, gehenna and tararus are vanished away. No one can find it. Jesus mentioned of gehenna and Peter mentioned of tararus as symbolic for to purge out of sin to become like silver (fruitful).

Thanks for the web-site and it is useful!! I have been looking for long time. One of the best website is 'Online Etymology Dictionary'. This one awsome! Thanks again!

Brett
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