Dear Sir,
I have just read you thread on why did Christ suffer and die?
And it is truly fascinating subject, I don't know really, but I was wondering if the dead sea scrolls, and other historical documents prove that the Bible is unbelievably accurate in it's translations of those parts in general, now as to a thousand years ago, is it not possible that although the Bible was ammended, that the content of the word of God remains as infallible now as ever, I think the NIV Bibles are one of the more accurate thesedays. I'm most certainly not attacking you, but you know immense amounts about the Bible, may I just ask if you're a Christian?
Because, if you are, is it not the meaning behind the Bible that remains so dear? or is it the fact that there's an odd word "mistranslated " somewhere along history. Please sir, if you believe everything that is in the Bible, then you also believe that it is God-breathed and inspired, THAT is the only thing that is infalli ble about it, we are human, as well as the 40 people that authored the different books, and even so, these 40 independant writers were pretty close to the mark wouldn't you say? =)
God Bless
Rich
Dear Rich: I am a follower of Jesus Christ.
Whether the majority of the entire human race (billions upon billions of grandmothers and grandfathers) will burn with literal fire in a Christian-imagined hellhole of eternal torture, is hardly arguing over "... the fact that there's an odd word "mistranslated" somewhere along history." That is over-the-top nonsense. Whether such "odd" words are miss-translated or not has everything to do with the most important single issue in the universe--the destiny of the human race. Give me a break!!
God be with you,
Ray
PS The original inspired writers were accurate in their writing of the Scriptures, but unfortunately not all of the theologians and translators through the centuries were as equally "close."
