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Jesus Nature?

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sonofone:
I have a question concerning the nature of Jesus. I was taught that Jesus was fully God and man all at the same time. My understanding of this was Jesus was born after the same manner as Adam,that is is to say without the fallen nature. Someone told me that when I put it like this I am saying that Jesus had an unfair advantage over us. Is it your understanding that Jesus was born with our sin nature activated so to speak? I don't think this is true. What do you think?

Gregor:
Greetings,
For me to fully explain how I understand this (good question, by the way) would take a huge paper full of scriptures. But, to put it as simple as I can, I think Jesus purpose here on earth was much different than ours. He started out perfect (without the sin nature) so as to "become sin" for us and crucify it to the cross ONCE AND FOR ALL. So at the cross Jesus tasted sin (ours), death, and seperation from God, making him fully man, giving up his spirit. Jesus did face every kind of temptation (invitation to sin) just like we do - lust of the eye, lust of the flesh, pride of life, when he was alone in the wilderness being tempted by satan. Unlike us, Jesus relied soley on the word of God saying "It is written..." and he overcame. He had faith and was obedient, even unto death. Since Jesus was completely submitted to the will of his Father, satan had to come and tempt him in person. Satan tempting us in person is something you and I will probably never need to experience because Adam's sin has been imputed to us and we volunteer out of our own desires. On the other hand, Jesus, being sinless, did not deserve the punishment for breaking the law (word of God) but partook of it (death) anyways so as to impute his righteousness to us. Now that we have fellowship with God restored, we can access his spirit to empower us to believe and submit to His will. Ultimately, in our sinful state it is impossible for man to fulfill the righteous requirements of the law and therefore only God could accomplish this, making Jesus fully equal with God - ONE.  Ray touches on this in his paper on the Trinity doctrine. I hope what I said sheds some light?

dawnnnny:

--- Quote from: Gregor on September 28, 2007, 01:21:42 PM ---He started out perfect (without the sin nature) so as to "become sin" for us and crucify it to the cross ONCE AND FOR ALL.

--- End quote ---

Hi Gregor,
I had to comment because of your one sentence "become sin" was just covered in a great audio by Ray that I listened to yesterday.  I'm posting the three links below, although I couldn't get the first part or third part to download  :(   but I listed to part 2 where Ray says Jesus did not become sin, but was the sin offering.  It was really good so I thought I'd let you know about it in case you wanted to listen.

If anyone else can tell me why the other 2 links don't work, I would appreciate it.  When I click on them I just get a bunch of weird code.

Have a great day!
Dawn


Under Ray's audio teachings:

October 06 Christ/Sin Pt. I
http://bible-truths.com/audio/WS_10001.WMA

November 06
http://bible-truths.com/audio/ChristSinII.wma
http://bible-truths.com/audio/ChristSinII.mp3

Gregor:
Thanks for the correction. My understanding is that he bore the sins, not that he was actual sin. Clarification is good.
Heb.9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

1Pet.3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:

I'll check out the links you sent. Thanks.
G.

Harryfeat:

--- Quote from: sonofone on September 28, 2007, 12:05:50 PM ---I have a question concerning the nature of Jesus. I was taught that Jesus was fully God and man all at the same time. My understanding of this was Jesus was born after the same manner as Adam,that is is to say without the fallen nature. Someone told me that when I put it like this I am saying that Jesus had an unfair advantage over us. Is it your understanding that Jesus was born with our sin nature activated so to speak? I don't think this is true. What do you think?

--- End quote ---

Hello Sonofone,

I agree with Gregor on two counts.  It's a great question and will take a ton of scripture to get through it.  I presume you are talking about pre-fall Adam Vs Jesus.

What is your impression of presin/prefall Adam.  Was he  a perfect, immortal, image of Elohim?  If so then did he not have an advantage over Jesus in that he was not born mortal? If he was perfect, why did he sin?  Did presin/prefall Adam indeed have a  sinful heart as discussed by Paul in Romans 7.  Was Paul referring to  presin/prefall  Adam with Rom 8:20?  When you read 1 Cor 15:32-50 do you think Paul is talking about presin/prefall Adam 1?   Just a few things I have been mulling over of late.

The simple answer to your question is that I didn't get the impression from Paul's discussion in 1Cor15 that he believed that Jesus the Christ had a sin nature like Adam 1.  I don't remember how Ray dealt with this issue since its been a while.  I guess I need to revisit.

I hope that helps.


be blessed
feat

PS. Added the presin desciption after reading MG's great post realized I had fallen back to the baggage of  my old tradition filled terminology.

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