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Difficult Passages
Beloved:
If yes, did God actually command his people to do this or is it possible that they did it and justified there actions by saying God told them to do it?
If God commanded it then how do we reconcile this with his previous commands?
If they used God to justify this, then how can the original scriptures be infallible?
Am I thinking too much? Am I thinking from a completely carnal
Sorry Sozo I misunderstood your question, because I didn't exactly know what your asking.
During the OT God spoke to and through men, Today it is the spirit of God that comes into each of us and he speaks to us eachand leads us to Truth...it will be spiritual Truth and not carnal.
Venegenge is God's alone...when things happen now most are from the Father of lies, The spirit of truth says ALL men will be saved...and we know that we are in Christ if we love our brethern (believers especially and others because they will be)
No one today especiall believers can justify acting carnally,
Gal 5:25 If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit
Eph 2:18 For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.
Rom 8:5 For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit.
Rom 8:8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God.
Rom 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.
1Jn 2:16 For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world.
Joh 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
God has not changed but now like Abraham He lets those that obey Him see what He is was really doing and what He will do in the future.
beloved
Kat:
Hi Jason,
Here is an e-mail that Ray gives an answer to this subject.
http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,6893.0.html -----
COMMENT: You do not under the 6th commandment. It does not say "Thou shalt not KILL" in the Hebrew manuscripts. It says, "Thou shalt not MURDER." Big big difference. Soldiers kill in war, they do not murder. Murder is the illegal killing of someone. When God told the Israelite to kill all of the pagans which were committing every conceivable kind of crime including burning the little children in fire, He was not telling them to commit sin. It was not a sin to kill these people at God's command, because they were not "murdering" them which would have been breaking God's commandment and which then would have been a contradiction.
Maybe cool off a big and starting at the top of my home page by reading my first paper: 'YOU FOOLS! YOU HYPOCRITES! YOU FOOLS!" You will learn more in one hour than in four years of Christian seminary.
God be with you,
Ray
Beloved:
Good point Kat I assumed everyone knew the difference between kill and murder from Ray's writings.
Glad you were quick to bring up the link to his writings to read.
But even killing is not even permissible, not in the physical or even in the mind, such a thing as to call a person Raca is condemmed.
Question to kat : Ray index of subjects have you updated them with the emails that have since come in ? I know it is a daunting task to even to have done the original one.
beloved
Sozo:
I do understand the difference between killing and murder. However, what I don't understand is how the following is considered killing and not murder:
"Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves."
Why would the virgin girls not be held to the same standard as the boys and the women who were not virgins? After all, were they not also among the pagans that committed these acts for which God was bringing about their destruction?
According to these passages, the one and only reason that they were allowed to live is because they were virgins. So whether one of these virgins sacrificed a child in the fire or worshiped another god had nothing to do with whether they lived or died.
So did God command Israel to let them live because they were virgins (regardless of whether or not they were partaking in the pagan atrocities) or did Israel take these spoils of war for their on pleasure and then use God to justify their actions?
OBrenda:
I noticed that in reading this it is Moses who Say's:
But Moses was furious with all the military commanders who had returned from the battle. "Why have you let all the women live?" he demanded. "These are the very ones who followed Balaam's advice and caused the people of Israel to rebel against the LORD at Mount Peor. They are the ones who caused the plague to strike the LORD's people. Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves
It does not say at this part that it was God's command, but just Moses.
Was Moses above going beyond God's comand?
This is an honest question, I would also like to understand?
Brenda
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