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=> Email to Ray => Topic started by: Craig on January 10, 2007, 03:03:25 PM
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I am strongly inclined to believe in the eventual restoration of all things, and I appreciate much of the information you have on the website. There is something that has been bothering me lately though, and I wondered if you had any light to shed on it: I am pretty sure that Christ says in reference to the one who is to betray Him (Judas), that it would have "been better for him if he had never been born". I'm not sure if I'm remembering the exact wording, but I'm pretty sure it was along those lines. What do you suppose that Christ meant by that? It troubles me.
Dear Reader:
I get asked this question at least a half dozen times a yar or more. The King James is not a proper translation on this verse. It should read:
"The Son of Man is indeed going away, according as it is written concerning Him [Jesus], yet who to that man [that man is Judas] through whom the Son of Man [Jesus] is being given up! Ideal were it for Him [JESUS, not 'that man, Judas'] if that man [Judas] were not born!" (Matt. 26:24, Concordant Literal New Testament).
God be with you,
Ray