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=> General Discussions => Topic started by: Dave in Tenn on May 08, 2013, 05:21:29 AM

Title: CLV
Post by: Dave in Tenn on May 08, 2013, 05:21:29 AM
Something I've noticed very recently about the Concordant Literal Version.  I had always assumed that they rendered/translated every different Greek or Hebrew word with the same English word...hence the "concordant" in the name.  This is not the case, however.  I'm doing a 'word study' on 'wrath', and (though they are less inconsistent than other versions) they do translate the same Greek word with more than one English word.

That is only as important as it is, and not a bit more...but I felt it was worth sharing, if only to correct statements I'd made in the past.
Title: Re: CLV
Post by: Wonone on May 18, 2013, 08:05:16 AM
While reading their Introduction to the Pentateuch, similar issue arose in my mind also, with a similar conclusion to your Dave. In the intro they state,

'By analyzing the contextual usages, a single English word was first selected as the most suitable equivalent for each Hebrew word. To achieve readability
some words were then given a limited number of idiomatic variants that are harmonious with the sense derived from the investigations.
English words used as the common translation of particular Hebrew words, and even idiomatic variants, are not used for other Hebrew words.'

Does your example fall under 'a limited number of idiomatic variants'?

But I am not sure that I really understand the last sentence: 'English words used as the common translation of particular Hebrew words, and even idiomatic variants, are not used for other Hebrew words.' Does it mean, in your case, that the 'idiomatic variant' used for 'wrath' is not used elsewhere [to cover another Hebrew word]?
Title: Re: CLV
Post by: Dave in Tenn on May 18, 2013, 02:19:48 PM
While I think that is what the sentence means, I did not try to verify that.  Essentially, they are saying that more than one English word may be used to translate an original language word, but that the same word(s) would not be used to translate a different original word.  At least, I THINK that's what they are saying.   :D  And I don't know if they handled the Greek differently than the Hebrew.