bible-truths.com/forums
=> General Discussions => Topic started by: nightmare sasuke on April 05, 2006, 02:04:03 AM
-
I heard Pat Roberson quote the following:
"I am the LORD [Yahweh], and there is none else, there is no God [Elohim] beside me..." (isaiah 45:21).
Many...many...Trinitarians use this verse as an example to support their pagan doctrine of the Trinity.
At first, I found myself with no explanation for the verse. My first thought was that the message was being sent from the Father; therefore it can be taken literally. However, I recalled hearing that "Elohim" is in the Plural form. If that is true, then the verse would mean "There is no God [Jesus and the Father; Elohim in the plural form]," which is indeed true. However, "...and there is none else," stands out whether Elohim is plural or not.
What are your opinions? Do any of you have information on the word "Elohim?"
-
The form of the word Elohim, with the ending -im, is plural and masculine, but the construction is usually singular, i.e. it governs a singular verb or adjective when referring to the Hebrew god, but reverts to its normal plural when used of heathen divinities (Psalms 96:5; 97:7). There are many theories as to why the word is plural:
In one view, predominant among anthropomorphic monotheists, the word is plural in order to augment its meaning and form an abstraction meaning "Divine majesty".
Among orthodox Trinitarian Christian writers it is sometimes used as evidence for the doctrine of the Holy Trinity.
In another view that is more common among a range of secular scholars, heterodox Christian and Jewish theologians and polytheists, the word's plurality reflects early Judaic polytheism. They argue it originally meant "the gods", or the "sons of El," the supreme being. They claim the word may have been singularized by later monotheist priests who sought to replace worship of the many gods of the Judean pantheon with their own singular patron god YHWH alone.
-
Do you think Elohim could refer to the unity and relationship of Christ and the Father?
-
Do you think Elohim could refer to the unity and relationship of Christ and the Father?
Either way it is argumentative. People will believe what they believe, Much like the aiōn debate. I would go so far as to say that people will believe what they are called to believe is the secondary meaning of the parable The Rich Man and Lazarus.
-
I think it plainly states the Lords name is Yahweh and there are no other gods, for He alone is God.
God bless,
Gary
-
nightmare sasuke
"I am the LORD [Yahweh], and there is none else, there is no God [Elohim] beside me..." (isaiah 45:21).
This is God saying i am the God, refering to the oneness of God. Jesus had not made his human appearance as yet.
Pat Roberson mixes the OT with the NT, disregarding Sciptures not to do so. Let us not make the same simple mistakes that have caused this one and same Pat Roberson to be doubted and misconstrue of the Word of God.
Rodger