I read the LOF papers and saw this one and started reading it. I found it interesting and somewhat confusing. I looked on the es-word:
This word limen has the word "fair" before it in Acts 27:8, in the King James Version—the "fair havens." Other translations render this verse as "safe harbor." (My father helped build Safe Harbor Dam in Pennsylvania).
I read this in the KJV on es-word then I changed the language on this scripture and got the change Ray talked about:
Acts 27:8 And, hardly passing it, came unto a place which is called The fare havens; nigh whereunto was the city Lasea.
Wouldn't the "fare havens" be the same "fare havens" in verse 12?The very reason that the "fair haven" of Acts 27:12
"…was not commodious [suitable] to winter in…" [is because of its position to the sea] "…the more [majority] part advised to depart thence also if by any means they might attain to Phenice, and there to winter; which is an haven [harbor] of Crete, and lies [opens] toward the south west and north west."
The American Bible Union Version translates this verse:
"was not well situated for wintering in…"
The Living Bible translates this verse:
"And since Fair Havens was an exposed harbor…
I have read the article till its end and still trying to understand the above. I know that everyone probably answered this 100 times. I am sorry for asking again. My female brain is trying to come with a reason for these words and can not.
Pam