> Hi Ray,
>
> I am hoping you can help me out with something. Isn't it true that Jesus
> spoke to the multitude in parables? And without a parable spake He not unto
> them? Or does that only apply in the context of
> Mat 13:34? But I know you know full well that the whole "context, context,
> context" teaching is false.
>
> Now with that being said, my question is. Since Jesus only spake to the
> multitudes in parables, and in
> Luk 20:34-35 He was speaking to the multitude, Chief priests and Scribes
> etc... Why do people assume that Jesus was speaking plainly to them that
> time, and what He said about "not given into marriage" to be literal, not
> parable? And do you believe He was speaking plainly to them that time, and
> what He said is to be taken literaly?
>
> I know you are very busy, and I would appreciate it very much if you are
> able to respond. Hopefully, it's not something that takes many pages to
> answer. Or that's too long for an email.
>
> God Bless,
> Sorin
Dear Sorin:
When Jesus spoke to the multitudes, when he TAUGHT the multitudes, then He used parables. You will see the term "taught" over and over. Or the statement that "He ANSWERED....".
But there were many times when Jesus just ANSWERED a question or made a statement, in which He was not giving a parable. Here is just one example:
Mat 15:28 "Then Jesus ANSWERED and said unto her, O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour."
This was not a parable that He gave to her.
God be with you,
Ray
