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Craig

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Question
« on: January 31, 2007, 11:14:44 PM »

    Dear Ray,
     
    Thank you for your ministry. I had not intended to write until I have completed reading all on your website.  However I have been asked a question and would value your input......     
     
    My understanding of the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ is that He was fully God and fully man throughout His life on earth - but that He set aside His will / His glory etc and only said and did that which He head from or say the Father do.  In other words He could have performed all the miracles etc etc in and of Himself but only did / said everything  through the Spirit of the Father  - Thy will not mine be done - showing us how it to man should live - how to "be perfect as you Father in heaven is perfect..."...ie "to will and to do His good purpose".
     
    I have been asked about Phil 2 vvs 8-9...   And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to the point of death, even the death of the cross.
    Phl 2:9   Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name..., I have been told that this means that "when He became a man, He ceased to be God". I cannot reconcile this with any Scripture - and would value your comments.
     
    Kind regards
     
    Elizabeth
     

    Dear Elizabeth:
    I'm afraid this is one of those questions that it would first take ten pages to explain what we mean
by "God." What constitutes "God?" Was Jesus "God?' when He was in the flesh? ETc., etc., etc.,   etc.  "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call His name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, GOD WITH US"  (Matt. 1:23).  Well now, was Jesus "a man with us" or "GOD with us?" Some claim that Jesus WAS THE FATHER IN FLESH. Makes one wonder who in the world Jesus prayed to if that were the case?  Did He pray to HIMSELF?  On the other hand, there are now those trying to deceive bible-truth.com readers into believing that Jesus was so totally FLESH, that "He was MADE SIN" rather than made "a sin OFFERING."  Jesus was a MAN with the MIND OF GOD. Jesus "emptied" (Phil. 2:5, "But made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant, and WAS [Greek for 'was' means "EMPTIED"]...." My margin says: "emptied himself of His privileges."  Jesus gave up many of His prior privileges when He was made a littler lower than the angels for the express purpose of being able to DIE (Heb. 2:9).  Notice that He was "crowned with GLORY and honour," yet He gave up much of His glory in becoming human, and that is why He prayed that His Father would RESTORE
the glories that He had with His Father from before the foundation of the world (John 17:5). Etc.
     
    I'm sorry, but nearly 99% of all questions asked of me in emails are entirely too long for an email. I could easily spend a week or two researching and writing on this very question you ask. The Bible is not nearly as "simple" and Christians claim that it is. It will probably take me 60 pages to explain Matt. 5:22 and Matt. 10:28 in my upcoming Installment on Hell Part D. The more difficult Scriptures and concepts (as the one you just asked me), are tied to every other Scripture and concept in the entirety of the Bible.  People have no concept of absolutely how PRECISE one must be in his words and explanations of these things, or it will contradict some verse somewhere.  Maybe God has given me an ability to make difficult things understandable and seemingly "simple."  Nothing, however, is SIMPLE in the Scriptures.  If it were, not every major doctrine of Christendom would be UNscriptural.  Hope you understand.
    God be with you,
    Ray

« Last Edit: February 01, 2007, 02:28:22 PM by Kat »
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