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Author Topic: Lazarus Parable ??  (Read 5313 times)

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Lazarus Parable ??
« on: May 11, 2006, 09:48:24 AM »

I have just finished reading your explanation of the PARABLE of Lazarus and the rich man. What an eye-opener, thank you very much!
I wish to comment on your interpreation of Matt 15:24, however. In your explanation of this parable, it appears that you interpret this verse to mean that Jesus says He was sent ONLY unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
You wrote:
" And, although, He said He was sent only to the Lost Sheep of the House of Israel , in His human ministry, He nonetheless, was making provisions for the Gentiles, as in this prophetic statement."
Here is the actual verse (KJV):
Mat 15:24    But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
The key word critical to the understanding of this verse is the simple word "not." Re-read the original Scripture, but this time leave out the word "not" ( I am sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel). That reading would be interpreted in exactly the way that you set forth in your paper. But the addition of the word "not" negates it!
So in reality, this verse actually says something like, " I am not sent only unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."
I am not a religious scholar, and maybe I am mistaken. But that is what this verse says to me!
Warm Regards in Christ Jesus our Lord,

Dear James:
You are confusing your grammar.  What Jesus is really saying is, "I am sent not [to any] BUT the lost house of Israel."
Notice a better translation of this verse: "I was not commissioned except FOR the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Concordant Literal NT).
Here's another:  "I was not sent forth, SAVE unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel" (Rotherham's Emphasized Bible).
One more: "I am ONLY sent to the perishing sheep of the Stock of Israel" (Emphatic Diaglott).
God be with you,
« Last Edit: January 14, 2007, 09:58:40 PM by Kat »
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