Hi Arion,
Note this comment from your excerpt.
There is no greater sin that any human being can think or do than to believe that the God that they worship will actually torture their mothers and fathers and some of their sisters and brothers and relatives in real fire for all eternity. It’s the ultimate sin.
Ray expresses the it is the teaching of an
eternal hell that is the ultimate sin. So that teaching of a
eternal place of torment would be the bases for their judgment that Ray is talking about, to not be forgiven in this age OR THE NEXT. I have to believe that it is not being forgiven 'in the next age' that is a hard to imagine punishment. You can see this in a email Ray answered, I only brought part of it here, because it was rather lengthy (I have placed in bold where I think Ray brings this out).
http://bible-truths.com/email16.htm --------------------------------------------------
[Ray Replies]
Dear Nick:
You quote the NASB which says: "...whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit NEVER has forgiveness..."
You then quote The Greek Interlinear Bible which says: "...who but might insult in the spirit the holy NOT he has sending off..."
Do you understand the difference between "not" and "never?" These two translations contradict each other. "not" and "never" ARE NOT THE SAME WORDS WITH THE SAME MEANING. You then contradict YOURSELF in your next statement by saying: "Verse 29 clarifies the statement and flatly says that there is a sin that 'NEVER has forgiven [NOT he has sending off)....'" You read it with you own eyes in a Greek Interlinear "not"---the word is "NOT," and say that this word means "NEVER." Let's read your statement again:
"Verse 29 clarifies the statement and flatly says that there is a sin that "NEVER has forgiveness NOT he has send off)..." It is my purpose to belabor this point. You say that the word "not" means "NEVER." This is not true, Nick.
"not, adv. 1 -- used as a function word to make negative a group of words or a word." (Webster's Collegiate Dictionary p. 848).
"never, adv. 1 -- not ever: at no time" (Webster's Collegiate Dictionary p. 834).
Can you now see the difference between these two words? Good. Maybe an example will clarify it even more for you:
Suppose I am a farmer and I say: "Will NOT plant corn this season nor the following season." And someone then passed on this statement and said: "Ray said that he will NEVER plant corn." Is that an accurate statement of what I said? NO IT ISN'T. Neither is your assertion that "not he has sending off into the age" means "never has forgiveness EVER."
The word "never" does not appear in ANY GREEK MANUSCRIPT. I checked three more Greek Interlinear and they all have the word "not." "Never"is a totally different word with a totally different meaning.
Next you say: The use of the word "but" is showing that there is a contrast, or an exception to the previous statement. All sins are forgivable, but blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is NOT." And there you put a PERIOD, as thou Jesus Christ put a period at this point of His statement.
You are very deceitful when you do things like this, Nick. Jesus said that "...blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is not forgiven NEITHER IN THIS WORLD, NEITHER IN THE WORLD TO COME." When will blasphemy "not be forgiver?" Answer: "IN THIS AGE AND THE AGE TO COME." Jesus did not say: "in this age and in the age to come, AND FOR ALL ETERNITY TOO." Is that what He said? Then why do YOU and Christendom say that that is what He said, when He said no such thing? First your "TAKE AWAY" from the word of God: you LEAVE OUT the phrase "in this world [age], neither in the world [age] to come."Next you "ADD TOO" the word of God: you turn TWO AGES INTO ETERNITIES!!
Where is the honest Biblical scholarship in this ungodly arguments of yours? The Scriptures (not I) completely destroy your arguments.
You then have the shameless audacity to REPEAT your unscriptural and dishonest scholarship.
You state: "As I said, Jesus s contrasting the second statement (unforgivable sin) with the first statement (forgivable sin). Or really? Jesus said "UNforgivable," did He? And in whose Bible, pray tell, are you finding THAT word? It never came out of any Greek manuscript! Jesus is NOT comparing "forgiveable" with "UNforgivable." He is comparing SINS--two categories of sins. One category that is forgiven and
one that is NOT FORGIVEN FOR THE NEXT TO AGES. For two specific periods of TIME, this sin is not forgiven. You cannot honest change Christ's words from "not for the next two ages" to "never for all eternity." You are dishonest, Nick.
Then yet a THIRD time you suggest that the word "never" is proper by quoting Mark 3:29. What was your purpose in quoting The Greek Interlinear if not to show what the EXACT words were? "Never" is not a substitution for the word "not." One if "NOT for two ages." The other is "NEVER, EVER." And you gloss over this as if it is not even important to make this critical difference. Suppose you were sentenced for a crime, and the Judge said that, "you shall not come out of jail this week or the week after." But the warden interpreted the Judge's statement to mean, "you shall NEVER EVER come out of jail." Do you think THEN, Nick, that you might be ready to argue the use of these two words properly? Think about it.
This is the first time, of tens of thousands of emails, that I have ever had someone suggest that if two Scriptures speak of the VERY SAME EVENT, that the verse that leaves out some of the information that the other verse puts in, that we should go with the one that LEAVES INFORMATION OUT. Talk about grasping at straws. You are really GRASPING!
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Now it does not apparent harm to call God "the ETERNAL God." That is a TRUE statement, but IT IS ;NOT A TRUE TRANSLATION! And when we make this SAME mistake of translating with reference to punishment for the ages, it becomes NEVER-ENDING, ETERNAL PUNISHMENT, which is a damnable heresy.
God be with you,
Ray