The Holy Scriptures were not written in chapters, different bible translations are what brought about the use of chapter/verse to help organize passages. So in that sense, it is hard to make a point about Jesus quoting from one chapter versus another, He simply quoted from the book of Moses (Genesis through Deuteronomy) [Mark 12:26, Lk 24:27 & 44].
I was not making a point about Jesus quoting from one chapter verses another. I was making a point about Jesus quoting from two different parts of the book of Genesis, which you are telling us is a part of the book of Moses. The modern chapter and verse division is a convenient way for us to refer to a certain part or parts of the Scriptures. I referred to the two different parts of Genesis by using this method. I don’t understand what the point is you are making here. It is very possible that I don’t have the intelligence or spiritual maturity to understand the point that you are trying to make.
I was making a point about Jesus quoting from two different parts of the book of Genesis and combining them as if they were both referring to a single and one-time and an only once ever creation of a mankind. This is in relation to a recent discussion on the forum: "did some people existed b4 adam was created?"
The quote 'two shall be one flesh' is in regards to the actual marriage of Adam & Eve. Adam took Eve to be his wife and that is what made them one:
Gen 2:24 Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh
I am not going to argue as to whether this refers to the actual marriage of Adam and Eve, it possibly does have some reference to a marriage of Adam and Eve but it does not seem to be a direct reference. Logically speaking, because Eve was made from Adam’s flesh, Adam and Eve were one flesh from the time of the forming of Eve and didn’t need to get married to become one flesh. The Scripture that you quote says that a man shall leave his father and mother (something that Adam could not do) so I am not sure how this scripture directly refers to a marriage of Adam and Eve although I am not saying that it has absolutely no reference. A man and a woman get married and they become one flesh. Because a woman was originally taken out of a man, for this reason, because the woman was originally one flesh with the man, for this reason, a man shall leave his mother and father (so there is a direct reference to future marriages) and become one flesh with his wife, and become as Adam and Eve were.
There is not a marriage ceremony taking place earlier in the creation account, only a statement about mankind being created:
Gen 1:26-27 Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.” So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.
The creation referred to here is a creation made in the image of God, according to His likeness, and one that had dominion over all the earth, and so it does not appear to have been an earlier substandard creation of mankind. You say that there is no marriage ceremony taking place here, but what did Jesus say? Jesus said that because in the beginning God made them male and female, for this reason, a man shall leave his father and mother and become one flesh with his wife. Jesus did not say, because the woman was taken out of the man, for this reason, a man shall leave father and mother and become one flesh with his wife, but because in the beginning God made them male and female. This shows to me that in the beginning God creating them male and female, and God taking the woman out of man, is the very same happening.
So therefore Genesis 1:26-27 and Genesis 2:7, 21-24 are referring to the same creation of man. I am explaining how it logically works out for me. However, if this is not a true logical conclusion, then someone just needs to explain the true logics and how it really is. Perhaps you have explained it Marques, and I am too dense to understand.
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Is the following Scripture also combining and merging Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 accounts, and by doing so confirming that there was only one creation of mankind?
Genesis 5:1-5
This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat a son in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth: And the days of Adam after he had begotten Seth were eight hundred years: and he begat sons and daughters: And all the days that Adam lived were nine hundred and thirty years: and he died.
What does the following Scripture mean? I might be completely wrong here but this Scripture gives me the idea that all nations came from one person.
Acts 17:26b
And
G5037 hath made
G4160 of
G1537 one
G1520 blood
G129 all
G3956 nations
G1484 of men
G444And what about this Scripture?
Genesis 3:20
And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.