Babylon the Great

[patmokgoko]

Hi friends,who is this Babylon the Great spoken so much about in the book of Revelation, also could someone please explain or refer me to one of Ray's teachings regarding Rev 14:9-11 "..and the smoke of their torment rises for ever and ever..........there is no rest.......in the presence of the Lamb

[arion]

There is a FAQ on the forum for the frequent questions.  The one about Babylon is found here;  http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,11603.0.html

[Kat]

Hi patmokgoko,

Here are a few emails to go with what Arion provided.

http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php?topic=2255.0 ---------------

Yes, I am sure that you think that the pagan doctrines of hell and torture are "clearly taught" in the Bible, but then again what the "bible" says and what the "manuscripts" from which the bibles are translated from, are two different matters, when it comes to "for ever and ever"--if "for ever" means for always, for all eternity, how much longer a time is added when we add the second "and  EVER" to a translation?  "Eternal" and "everlasting" are not Scritural words, but rather biblical words spuriously translated.  Maybe read my paper on: "Is EVERLASTING Scriptural?"  It is found on our home page.  Concerning baptism:  Jeremy, there are those who are baptized in water and get WET; and then there are those who get baptized into the Name of Jesus and get CONVERTED--it is a matter of what your priorities are.


http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php?topic=13054.0 ----------------

There are a dozen verses in the King James Bible that "suggest everlasting torture." But,
thank God, the King James is not the only English translation.  What is "forever and ever?"  Is it un-
ending eternity?  "And the fumes of their torment are ascending for [or 'into'] the eons OF [not 'and']
the eons" (Rev. 14:11, Concordant Literal New Testament).  "And the smoke of their torment rises
for Ages of [not 'and'] Ages" (Rev. 14:11, Emphatic Diaglott).  "And the smoke of their torment unto
ages of ages ascendeth" (Rev. 14:11, Rotherham's Emphasized Bible).  So much for the idea
that this verse is talking about "forEVER AND EVER," or "for ETERNITY AND ETERNITY," or to
keep it in the inspired plural, "for ETERNITIES AND ETERNITIES."   Can you not see that there is
gross injustice in the King James family of translations?

Now then, for even more proof (and there are many more, but I'll just cover one more):  How long
does "forever and ever" last according to the Scriptures themselves?  Do these "forevers" ever
come to an end (Scripturally speaking, not according to my interpretation)?  Yes, they do.  How
long are we told that Jesus will rule using this bogus King James translation?

Rev 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices
in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms
of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign FOR EVER AND EVER.

*Does this "for ever and ever" reign of Jesus ever come to an END? 

Yes, it does:

1Co 15:24-28 Then comes the end, when He shall have delivered up
the kingdom to God, even the Father; when He shall have put down
all rule and all authority and power. For He must reign, TILL [the
word 'till' means 'UNTIL'] He hath put all enemies under His feet.

The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For He hath put
all things under his feet. But when He saith all things are put
under Him, it is manifest that He is excepted, which did put all
things under Him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him,
then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all
things under him, that God may be all in all.

And so, God informs us that the reign of His Son lasts only "UNTIL He has put
all enemies under His feet."  Therefore, whatever these false teachers say
"aions of the aions" should be translated, it matters not, because we have
Scriptural proof that Christ's "aions of the aions" reign COMES TO AN END!

God be with you,

Ray