From Ray's "How hard is getting saved?":
Right in the beginning in Acts, (before the Holy Spirit came) Paul says, “For it is written in the book of Psalms let his habitation be desolate and let no man dwell therein and his bishopry let another one have.” Now that sounds like it might be a quote from one of the Psalms, right? No. He took two Psalms, part of this one and part of that one, and put them together. It says, “let his habitation..” It doesn’t say “his” habitation when you go back to read it, it says “their” habitation. He takes part of a verse here and part of a verse there, changes the words, and says, “this is what God says we should do.” And yet if I quote any scripture from anywhere in the bible, every theologian on earth says, “Ray, you quoted that out of context.” If I say, “God is Love”, oh but ONLY IN CONTEXT Ray! God is only love in the context in Romans 6 or 7 where that is used, you can’t just lift that out and say it like it’s a truth. Boy, I’m telling you, you just have no idea how far down the road theology has gone.
But this looks like it’s a little over the top…Peter takes a scripture from here and there, part of one, part of another, CHANGES THE WORDS and says, “What God is telling us here is that we have got to find a replacement for Judas.”
How could he do that? Does anybody know how he did that?
How could he get away with that? You don’t have to be too much of a theologian to look at that and try to find that in the book of Psalms, and you have to go to two Psalms, and then you find he changed the words…HOW DID HE GET AWAY WITH THAT??
Is that scriptural or is that heresy, what Peter did there? Jesus Christ, before He left, He opened up the scriptures to Peter. What did He tell him? What did He tell him, that he could do that…?? He showed him, that whenever the scriptures talk about Israel, they are talking about Him. You follow that? Whenever the scriptures talk about Israel, it has reference to Christ. And whatever has reference to Christ has reference to us! Because Christ is in us: as Christ is so are we. Are you following that? Who got that? Anybody? Wanted to share something I was confused about and it's now clear.
When I first read this and the Ray's paper on his paper "Twelve Truths to Understanding His Word" I thought:
- whenever the text mentions Israel, it's actually talking about Jesus.
- whenever the text mentions Jesus, it's talking about us.
- problem was: how to separate correctly what was referencing what, what's is about Israel and what was about Christ?
I now understand it's actually easier: Would it be correct to say:
- whenever it mentions Israel or Jesus, it's ALWAYS talking about US, because as Jesus is so are we.
- no need to separate the two!
?
Thanks!