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« on: July 31, 2006, 10:12:00 AM »


I’ve been studying The Word a lot for the past couple months. I stumbled upon the truth of the errors in the bible translation and the truth about hell and eternity through Martin Zender. From there I moved onto the concordant teachings which made sense until I read your paper on the secret rapture and you’re quickly changing my opinion. Of course I would like to study these things further myself but so far I find no fault in your teaching on this subject and I thank you for it.

My question is why in the “Jewish Epistles” it is always Jesus Christ but in Paul’s writings sometimes it’s Jesus Christ and others it is Christ Jesus. Nothing in the Bible is accidental and I wonder what your take on this is. Why the difference?

I’d appreciate a response but I understand if you don’t have the time. If you could point me to any teaching that explains this or even if you get a chance to answer in the future and post it on your site.

You’re brother in Christ,


Dear Nick:

Clearly Jesus Christ and Christ Jesus are the same person. It is merely a matter of emphasis. Are we speaking specificial of JESUS (who is the Anointed One), or are we emphasizing His Office, the ANOINTED Jesus or CHRIST Jesus.

God be with you,

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