From the paper I linked:
"Something really interesting to me, is the doctrine of 2 administrations; one for the Jews and one for the Gentiles. Two different gospels and all that nonsense. The Concordant Publishing teach that, a total farce. You can read my paper ‘Exposing The Secret Rapture,’ a 100 pages that just blows all that away.
II Peter was written to show the apostasy that had set in and would grow worse. That the WORDS OF THE PROPHETS AND THE WORDS OF THE APOSTLES must be heeded and preserved.
II Peter 3:2 that you may be mindful of the words which were spoken before by the holy prophets, and of the commandment of us, the apostles of the Lord and Savior,
But Peter says, Paul writes to you, isn’t that what he says in II Peter 3:15?
But I thought Peter was suppose to go to the Jews and Paul to the Gentiles. Now it says in Gal. 2, that I (Paul) was to the uncircumcised and Peter to the circumcised.
Gal 2:7 …when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter.
But look at this.
II Peter 3:14 Wherefore, beloved, seeing that ye look for these things, give diligence that ye may be found in peace, without spot and blameless in his sight.
v. 15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also, according to the wisdom given to him, wrote unto you;
Who did Paul write all his epistles to? The Gentiles. Paul is now in prison in Roman and Peter is writing to the Gentiles. What is going on here? Apparently Paul wanted him to, because Paul can’t get these letters out being in Roman, like he use to.
II Peter 3:16 as also in ALL his epistles, speaking in them of these things;
What did Peter know about “all his (Paul’s) epistles”? Because Peter had them. He had them all. How did he get them?"
He had them, but didn't teach from them? I don't think so.