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More exciting discoveries right out of God’s word .
zvezda:
Hi Alex, the New Living Translation also adds satan to the beginning of the verse -
Satan, who is the god of this world, has blinded the minds of those who don't believe. They are unable to see the glorious light of the Good News. They don't understand this message about the glory of Christ, who is the exact likeness of God.
I think "theou" could refer to true God or false god. look at John 10:35 and Acts 7:40
John 10:35 Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
Acts 7:40 Saying unto Aaron, Make us gods to go before us: for as for this Moses, which brought us out of the land of Egypt, we wot not what is become of him.
Maybe 2 Cor. 4:4 is referring to a false god in general?
Dave in Tenn:
Where are you guys getting "theou"? In II Cor. 4:4? I can't find a Greek word "theou" at all. Both times it is used in this verse, it is "theos."
Ray is correct in what Alex quoted.
Just to add: Don't give satan 'free moral agency' either. He is a tool in the Hand that formed him. He's not going around doing his own thing with God responding/reacting to it. All is of God. In this way, it matters little who the "god" of this world/age/nations is. Father has it all under control.
http://bible-truths.com/lake9.html
lilitalienboi16:
--- Quote from: Dave in Tenn on March 22, 2015, 10:24:22 PM ---Where are you guys getting "theou"? In II Cor. 4:4? I can't find a Greek word "theou" at all. Both times it is used in this verse, it is "theos."
Ray is correct in what Alex quoted.
Just to add: Don't give satan 'free moral agency' either. He is a tool in the Hand that formed him. He's not going around doing his own thing with God responding/reacting to it. All is of God. In this way, it matters little who the "god" of this world/age/nations is. Father has it all under control.
http://bible-truths.com/lake9.html
--- End quote ---
Hey Dave,
I looked at the greek interlinear to see the difference. The KJV with strong's won't give you the subtle difference. You could also google a search for the greek version of it and you'll see it there. Either way, they are extremely similar but its that last letter.
I also agree with your last statement Dave. It matters little as Jesus is certainly the God of this age and more! He is definitely very in control and certainly not satan.
God bless,
Alex
Edit: Here is a page where you can go to verse 4 and find it in how its rendered in several different greek manuscripts:
http://www.greeknewtestament.com/B47C004.htm
lilitalienboi16:
I just checked these two greek words again and they might as well be hte same greek word. There appears to be very little distinction between why one is used against another.
For example:
Matt 3:9 And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God [Gk: theos ] is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham.
Here in this verse, theos, referes to God (that is, the Father and Son ) and yet its the same greek word used in 2 Cor 4:4 that the translators made "god" lower case and thus appearing to mean "satan."
I don't understand why they did this and it doesn't make sense in my opinion, not if it can mean God the Father or Jesus in one verse and then randomly "god" when they think that it fits. I think they were blinded by their theology because they didn't think God could blind since tranditional christian theology that is responsible for much heresy through translations believes that God didn't create evil or does anything evil.
Here is another example, Matt 6:30 "Wherefore, if God [ GK: 'theos' ]so clothe the grass of the field, which to day is, and to morrow is cast into the oven, shall he not much more clothe you, O ye of little faith?"
Surely this is not speaking of Satan clothing us is it?! I mean there are so many example of this. I got 561 hits for this world alone. I'm not going to check all of them heh...
God bless,
Alex
Dave in Tenn:
I get the same thing, Alex. Both are translated (and should be) "god". I don't remember my greek grammar well enough to comment...I can still make out the letters, though. ;) I suspect it has to do with how it is used in the sentence as a "part of speech". 'OF God' may well be 'spelled' differently than 'God OF'.
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