> General Discussions
New Testament Scriptural Definition of Sin
cheekie3:
All -
Does anyone know if Ray provided two or three New Testament Scriptures that defined 'sin' please.
Thank You.
Kind Regards.
George
Kat:
Here are a couple of places sin is explained.
http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php?topic=2302.0 ------------
> Hi L. Ray,
>
> One question? Only one. Very simple. If God controls everything,
> then what is sin?
>
>
> Blessings,
>
> Chad
Dear Chad:
Sin is sin regardless of whether "God controls everything," or God
controls nothing. Sin is lawlessness, missing the mark, coming short
of the glory of God, etc. God never ever does any of these things. Men
do. God made men so that they would "miss the mark," "fall short," and
be "lawless." It is not a sin for God to have made man so weak as to
prevent him from having the power to resist sin. There is a great purpose
for God creating man so that he cannot overcome the lusts of his carnal
weak mind, which God created. For the details, read the rest of our site.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Rom 3:23 for all have sinned(G264) and fall short of the glory of God,
Strong's definition
G264
hamartanō; properly to miss the mark (and so not share in the prize), that is, (figuratively) to err, especially (morally) to sin: - for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
http://bible-truths.com/kennedy2.htm -------------------------------------------
Read Mat. 7:18-23. Our Lord speaks of a large group of people (many), " ... in that day," who will justify their Christian walk by: "prophesying in Christ's name," "casting out demons," and "doing many wonderful works." (Ver. 22). Sounds pretty good to me. But there seems to be a problem when Christ says: " ... depart from me, ye that work iniquity" (Ver. 23).
"Iniquity" is not the proper translation here. The Greek word is anomon-UN-LAWness or LAWLESSNESS. Man thinks by nature he is above the law in that "free will" is, itself, lawless. Thinking himself equipped with "free will" man feels a certain equality with his Creator. "Human free will," therefore, becomes the epitome of man's lawlessness. Man thinks himself a potter. However, to man's chagrin, God says He is the Potter and man is the "pot" (Isa. 64:08).
And God hates pride (Prov. 6:17, 16;18, 29:23), which is the bed-buddy of human "free will."
Anyone who is so deluded as to think he possesses powers so great as to be able to thwart the very Will of God, is certainly disqualified from being a teacher of the Word of God!
"Sin is lawlessness" (I Jn. 3:4). Free will is lawlessness.
v
Humans do have wills. But wills are not free from causality.
" ... for it is GOD Who is operating in you TO WILL as well as to work for the sake of His delight" (Phil. 2:13).
This involves countless unperceived forces.
Don't confuse "will" with "choice." Someone might say: "If our choices, are caused, then how can one call it a 'choice'-isn't that a contradiction?" Not at all. Free will demands that when someone makes a "free will" choice, no thing or no one made or forced him to do so. It was completely up to him-one way or the other. People simple confuse the meaning and definition of words. The word "choice" has absolutely nothing to do with whether or not the choice could have been avoided. A choice is merely what we prefer. Nowhere does the word "choice" carry with it the notion of "avoidability."
When one makes a choice, one selects what one prefers most at that instant. Nevertheless, something still caused that choice, whether one sees or feels its presence or not. One can argue that one made a free choice because one desired to do so. It still doesn't matter-the desire caused the choice, and the desire, itself, was caused. There are no exceptions. One may suggest that one did or said something without a cause simply because one willed to do so. Fine. But then even you are admitting that the choice had a cause, namely your will. One's wills and desires are not free from the laws of God or the laws of physics. These demand a cause for every effect. Man is not a deity. Man's will is not independent from his Creator (Phil. 2:13).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
mercy, peace and love
Kat
Flanagan:
That was very good Kat , Thank you, We're all fortunate to have you on the forum.
stello:
Good morning Flanagan and everyone !!! :)
We are indeed very blessed to have Kat here with us. I'm still young in the faith but as i grow i understand more and more that God is totally in control of everything. Just wanted to say that to say this: "being fortunate or lucky" i believe is not really accurate as it implies events occurring outside of God's will. At least that's how i view it. This wasn't meant as a rebuke just wanted to share my thoughts on being "fortunate".
Of course i could be very wrong! In which case i am willing to learn. I love you my brother Flanagan and everyone else!!! :D have a blessed day.
stello
cheekie3:
Kat -
Thank you for your Post; and as always, it is very helpful:
--- Quote from: Kat on August 16, 2016, 12:23:34 PM ---
Here are a couple of places sin is explained.
http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php?topic=2302.0 ------------
> Hi L. Ray,
>
> One question? Only one. Very simple. If God controls everything,
> then what is sin?
>
>
> Blessings,
>
> Chad
Dear Chad:
Sin is sin regardless of whether "God controls everything," or God
controls nothing. Sin is lawlessness, missing the mark, coming short
of the glory of God, etc. God never ever does any of these things. Men
do. God made men so that they would "miss the mark," "fall short," and
be "lawless." It is not a sin for God to have made man so weak as to
prevent him from having the power to resist sin. There is a great purpose
for God creating man so that he cannot overcome the lusts of his carnal
weak mind, which God created. For the details, read the rest of our site.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Rom 3:23 for all have sinned(G264) and fall short of the glory of God,
Strong's definition
G264
hamartanō; properly to miss the mark (and so not share in the prize), that is, (figuratively) to err, especially (morally) to sin: - for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
http://bible-truths.com/kennedy2.htm -------------------------------------------
Read Mat. 7:18-23. Our Lord speaks of a large group of people (many), " ... in that day," who will justify their Christian walk by: "prophesying in Christ's name," "casting out demons," and "doing many wonderful works." (Ver. 22). Sounds pretty good to me. But there seems to be a problem when Christ says: " ... depart from me, ye that work iniquity" (Ver. 23).
"Iniquity" is not the proper translation here. The Greek word is anomon-UN-LAWness or LAWLESSNESS. Man thinks by nature he is above the law in that "free will" is, itself, lawless. Thinking himself equipped with "free will" man feels a certain equality with his Creator. "Human free will," therefore, becomes the epitome of man's lawlessness. Man thinks himself a potter. However, to man's chagrin, God says He is the Potter and man is the "pot" (Isa. 64:08).
And God hates pride (Prov. 6:17, 16;18, 29:23), which is the bed-buddy of human "free will."
Anyone who is so deluded as to think he possesses powers so great as to be able to thwart the very Will of God, is certainly disqualified from being a teacher of the Word of God!
"Sin is lawlessness" (I Jn. 3:4). Free will is lawlessness.
v
Humans do have wills. But wills are not free from causality.
" ... for it is GOD Who is operating in you TO WILL as well as to work for the sake of His delight" (Phil. 2:13).
This involves countless unperceived forces.
Don't confuse "will" with "choice." Someone might say: "If our choices, are caused, then how can one call it a 'choice'-isn't that a contradiction?" Not at all. Free will demands that when someone makes a "free will" choice, no thing or no one made or forced him to do so. It was completely up to him-one way or the other. People simple confuse the meaning and definition of words. The word "choice" has absolutely nothing to do with whether or not the choice could have been avoided. A choice is merely what we prefer. Nowhere does the word "choice" carry with it the notion of "avoidability."
When one makes a choice, one selects what one prefers most at that instant. Nevertheless, something still caused that choice, whether one sees or feels its presence or not. One can argue that one made a free choice because one desired to do so. It still doesn't matter-the desire caused the choice, and the desire, itself, was caused. There are no exceptions. One may suggest that one did or said something without a cause simply because one willed to do so. Fine. But then even you are admitting that the choice had a cause, namely your will. One's wills and desires are not free from the laws of God or the laws of physics. These demand a cause for every effect. Man is not a deity. Man's will is not independent from his Creator (Phil. 2:13).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
mercy, peace and love
Kat
--- End quote ---
The only definition, I have so far found is that 'sin is the transgression of Our Heavenly Father's Royal Law'; and every man and and woman from Adam and Eve has 'transgressed His Royal Law' - which is sin.
I John 3:4: KJV:
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Kind Regards.
George
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