Hi George,
I'm think you missed something very important that ray pointed out. The ONE in paul's state isn't the Father. Its The Father and Jesus.
Jesus said: "I [Jesus] and My Father are one" (John 10:30). Who is the
"one" in Jesus's statement? The Father? NO--"the Father AND Jesus."
Wow. Isn't that also what Paul really says in I Cor. 8:6?
That is the ONE God. From how I understand what you said, "There is One God - Our Heavenly Father together with His Beloved Son (Jesus Christ)'," isn't quiet the same to me as it makes it appear as if we have two God's.
As for your question regarding Rev 1:7 of "Say's the Lord" do we know if that is accurate? I believe we do. Revelation, as written by John, was originally done so in greek to my knowledge. I don't recall John ever using the term 'Jehovah' in his writings but rather the greek word 'Kurios' which is in english is 'Lord.'
Furthermore, Jesus of the NT is Jehovah of the OT. That is exactly what ray proved in his "Solving the Enigma of God, Part 1" paper and in his many other writings.
So ether way, it would be a moot point even if the original God inspired version had john hearing 'Jehovah' say those things as opposed to 'The Lord says', which like I said, I don't believe is the case anyway.
I agree that the Son could not exist without His Father but also remember, that a father is no father without his son. Jesus did say at one point in the flesh that His Father was greater but we are also told that before He emptied Himself "In God’s own form existed he, and shared with God equality, deemed nothing needed grasping. But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross." (Phil 2:6-8)
Hopefully this helps some. Its Always an interesting discussion.
God bless,
Alex