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Author Topic: Correction  (Read 3270 times)

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Craig

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Correction
« on: August 29, 2006, 11:26:35 AM »

Mr. Smith - I diligently read the Holy Bible and many, many internet sites in search of a better understanding of the Word of God.  However, when I run across errors such as contained in the following passage, it leads me to distrust the credibility and reliability of such a site.  Jesus ascended to Heaven 40 days after his resurrection.  Also, in reading a number of your exposťs, I noticed that you really could use a careful proofreader.  I am not trying to be mean, it's just that in my mind, if you are going to put yourself out as an interpreter of the Bible, you should be more careful with your research and syntax.  Thanks for listening and go with God!!
 
(18) In Matthew 24:31 the Lordís return is in the company of angels even as His ascension from the Mount of Olives 50 days after the resurrection was in the presence of "two men in white apparel" (Acts 1:10). Yet Paul describes the Lordís descent in I Thessalonians 4:16 as being "the Lord Himself." It was not necessary to add the pronoun, "Himself," unless the apostle wanted to point out a further unique feature of this event. There is indeed "the voice of the archangel," but it is the Lord Himself Who descends with that voice.


Dear Helen:

Well, apparently you didn't read too "diligently" my paper on the rapture theory. I totally destroyed the unscriptural suggestion that the word "himself" implies "ONLY."  It surely does not as I prove conclusively by other Scriptures. Below is the section covered in my paper that you obviously missied:

OUR LORD DOES NOT RETURN TO HIS SAINTS BY HIMSELF ALONE

    (18) In Matthew 24:31 the Lordís return is in the company of angels even as His ascension from the Mount of Olives 50 days after the resurrection was in the presence of "two men in white apparel" (Acts 1:10). Yet Paul describes the Lordís descent in I Thessalonians 4:16 as being "the Lord Himself." It was not necessary to add the pronoun, "Himself," unless the apostle wanted to point out a further unique feature of this event. There is indeed "the voice of the archangel," but it is the Lord Himself Who descends with that voice.

ANSWER: Are we to believe that the archangel followed Christ from heaven to earth, made a quick cameo appearance by giving a shout, and then went back to heaven?

What about this argument. When God inspires the pronoun "Himself" to be used in Scripture does it prove that that one person only can be present?

Even in our own everyday vernacular this statement is not accurate. Suppose I made the following statement: "Did you know that the White house is going to be represented at our convention?" To which someone might reply: "Oh, the White House is going to send a representative?" To which I would reply: "No. President Bush himself is coming." Now as you all know, the President of the greatest nation on earth, NEVER travels alone. Did we think that Jesus Christ would return by "Himself," alone? Our Lord is not sending messengers to "represent" Him at this awesome and auspicious occasion (although angels will be present). No, our Lord "HIMSELF" is coming!

Let us see if the Scriptures "themselves" (pun intended) prove that the pronoun "Himself" does not necessarily mean "by Himself, alone."

       1.

          "Now at their speaking these things, Jesus Himself stood in THEIR midst and is saying to THEM, Peace to you!" Jesus stood by Himself ... in a GROUP!
       2.

          "And I hear a loud voice out of the throne saying, ĎLo! The tabernacle of God is with MANKIND, and He shall be tabernacling with THEM, and they will be His people, and God Himself will be with THEM."

It is Godís plan and purpose to bring many sons into His family. When new Jerusalem descends out of heaven, it is stated that God will dwell with them on the earth. Did we think that God will be dwelling in New Jerusalem all by Himself, alone? That would, of course, defeat His very purpose of "dwelling with them."

So let it be clear to all that in I Thes. 4:16 where it is said that "... the Lord Himself will be descending from heaven ..." it certainly does not prove or mean that He comes "alone," especially in the light of the above Scriptures which prove that Christ or God are present " themselves " in the company of many or even multitudes.

    (19) Furthermore, there is a significant distinction in the location of this assembling. It is in the air (4:17) while the assembling described in Zechariah 14 and Revelation 14 is on the Mount of Olives.

ANSWER: These arguments are a grasping for straws. They have no validity at all. Actually, Zechariah 14 does not say that the Lord gathers His saints on, or while standing on, the Mount of Olives. Here is what it does say regarding the gathering of His saints:

    "And the Lord my God shall come, And all the saints WITH Him" (Zech. 14:7).

Clearly it is when He "shall come," (not after He came ), that they are gathered "with Him." Etc., etc., etc.  .

God be with you,

Ray
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Craig

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Re: Correction
« Reply #1 on: August 30, 2006, 09:42:48 AM »

Dear R and Forum:
I wrote that paper on the Rapture over five years ago. After reading what appeared to be a statement concerning whether Jesus returns ALONE to this earth in I Thes. 4, I didn't even pay attention to the "50 days."  I simply answered the false assumption in the statement. I had forgotten that this "(18)" was the way I numbered the false teachings of Rapturists.
 
That # (18) is NOT MY WORDS.  I did not say one word in that # 18) statement. It is the false statement made by a Rapturist that I then Scripturally corrected. I never paid any heed to the "50" days that should have been "40" days, becuase IT HAD ABSOLUTELY NOTHING TO DO WITH THEIR ARGUMENT that they believe Jesus will return for His saints "ALONE."
 
Sorry for the mix-up. I know it is "40 days," the "50 days" ARE NOT MY WORDS.
 
God be with you,
Ray
 

    Mr. Smith:
     
    I just read the following email posted on your forum and I can't say as I understand what your response has to do with the question/comment made. Is there part of the email missing?
     
    The post follows with the writer's point (that I saw) in red and what she was addressing in your article in bold:
     
    You did not address the 40 days ( vs "50 days"  in your article that the writer seemed to be quoting back to you). Instead, you seem to address your own quote and say that the writer didn't understand what "the Lord Himself" meant.)
     
    I can't see where that was even the question. I only saw this writer as pointing out that you said "50 days" and she said it should be 40 days.
     
    Act 1:3 To whom also he shewed himself alive after his passion by many infallible proofs, being seen of them forty days, and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God:
     
    Thanks,
    Bob
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