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Author Topic: Parables  (Read 4476 times)

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« on: December 30, 2006, 08:42:14 PM »

Dear Ron:
I will make some your email:

> With reference to your paper on Lazarus and the rich man:
> Matthew 13:34 All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in
> parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them:
> Ray, to use this verse to prove that Jesus never spoke anything to the
> multitudes without using parables is just not the case. This notation was
> made only in reference to this particular setting as He spoke to them on
> the Sea shore.
> There were many times when He spoke to the multitudes without using
> parables:
> Matt 13:54, Mark chapter 7, Matthew chapters 5, 6 & 7. Throughout
> the four gospels He spoke and taught the people in the Synagogues without
> using parables.
COMMENT:  You don't know how he taught in the synagogue in Matt. 13:54.
Besides, this was the synagogue, not the "multitudes."

Mark 7--In the first third of this chapter Jesus is speaking to "Pharisees and certain of  the Scribes"  NOT the "multitudes."  After that He "called all the people." Now, now we have a "multitude," and what did Jesus now teach them?  "There is nothing from without....but the things which come out of him...defile the man.  If any man have ears tohear let him hear."  What do you mean if any man have ears to hear. Couldn't ANYONE hear this saying of Jesus and understand it?  NO!  Here's the proof that this is another PARABLE: "Ad when He was entered into the house FROM the people, His disciples [not the multitude of people, just HIs disciples ASKED CONCERNING THE PARABLE." (Mark 7:14-17).  Then He entered a house (verse 24).  Then He gives another PARABLE to the Syrophenician woman (Verse 27).  And that's it for chapter to 7.  Am I going too fast for you?

> In all the cases where Jesus used a parable, it was identified in
> scripture as a parable. The story of Lazarus and the rich man was not
> identified in scripture as being a parable.

COMMENT:  I give about three dozen proofs that it is a parable. Read my paper on Lazarus.
> Your reference to the wording "this parable" referring to more than one
> parable that follows falls short of reasoning for the following reason.
> The word "taute" translated to "this" is singulair in nature and
> describes only one parable.
> Your reference to the word "also" in Luke 16:1 means nothing. The word
> "kai" which was translated to "also" could have been translated into
> other words including "then" so it has no real value in making any point
> whatsoever.
> Your reference to Jesus speaking about a "certain man" leads to the start
> of a parable is not valid in my mind. According to Webster a certain man
> or a certain person not named or described is still a real person, a
> definite person.
> Ray, I barely started into this pa per and found these references to be
> stumbling blocks. How can I possibly get by these to read the rest of the
> paper, where you just might make some good points that I would like to
> consider?
> Way too much conjecture Ray.

COMMENT:  Spoken like a true close-minded despiser of God's Word.


> Ron

« Last Edit: December 30, 2006, 08:45:26 PM by parsonssc »
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