Guys,
I read this in one of Ray's e-mail. Why does the bible use the word Christian in this Scripture. I thought in the orginal church that the word Christain was unknown. Was this added later to the orginal text or what is going on here?
[1] "Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a CHRISTIAN" (Acts 26:28). This was Agrippa speaking and not in a favorable light. He didn't say: "Almost you persuade me to be a follower of the Christ." No, he said "CH-R-I-S-T-I-A-N."
[2] "Yet if any man suffer as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God on this behalf" (I Peter 4:16). In other words, suffering at the hands of those who called these followers of Jesus Christ "C-H-R-I-S-T-I-A-NS" in a contemptious way. Peter was not endorsing this term, but merely expressing how those who would cause "suffering" on a follower of Jesus, would term them or name them.
[3] "And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that a whole year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught much people. And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch" (Acts 11:26). Again, it is the outsiders who are calling the fillowers of Jesus "Christians." They did not call THEMSELVES "Christians."
What do you label yourself as? ( Sorry if I sound ignorant, I'm new)
COMMENT: It's okay, I am still ignorant of many things. Actually I don't "label" myself at all.
I do, however, confess that I am a follower of Jesus Christ.
God be with you,
Ray
Just trying to figure it out, Thank you
Shalukey
I for one do not proclaim myself as a Christain. I am glad that I am a follower of Christ. Too many negative connatations go along iwth the word Christian and Christainity.
<picks up drum and marches to differentr beat>
Sincerely,
Anne C. McGuire