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Author Topic: Judas  (Read 4963 times)

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« on: March 26, 2007, 10:33:55 PM »

Dear David:
I will make a few COMMENTS in your email........

    Dear Brother Smith,

    i have a few questions pertaining to Judas, the 'traitor'.

    1) i never really understand why Judas was termed a traitor...Jesus was a public figure at that time and He was clearly not in hiding. Moreover, Jesus wanted to be captured by the romans/pharasees, so Jesus could have simply stood in the middle of the Jerusalem square waiting to be caught by the authorities. Why then did jesus need a Judas to fulfill this task? Moreover, the bible has termed Judas to be a 'traitor'. Why the 'exaggeration'?

    COMMENT:  It is not an 'exaggeration.'  The 'authorities' had no desire to capture Jesus at all, it was the Religious Leaders.  But they did not want to take him by force among the people, for they feared the people because many of them thought Jesus to be the Son of God.  Here is the answer as to why Judas was bribed to betray Jesus in secrecy:  "And he [Judas] promised, and sought opportunity to betray Him [Jesus] unto them in the ABSENCE OF THE MULTITUDE" (Luke 22:1-6).

    2) In the gnostic gospel of Judas, it claims that Judas knew his very purpose, which is to betray the son of Man. What's your take on this new found gospel depicted so many times on National Geographic?

    COMMENT:  I don't have the time or desire to discuss the Gospel of Judas. Few organizations are a greater enemy to the Scriptures than National Geographic.

    3) Why did Jesus say  about Judas that 'it was better for him not to be borned'? As God, this sentence seemed pretty meaningless, as if Judas had a choice on whether he wishes to be borned or not..

    COMMENT:  I have answeered this many times. Jesus didn't say it would be better for Judas if Judas had not been born. Here is the order of words in an Interlinear:  "The indeed son of the man goes as it has been written about HIM; was but to the man that, through whom the son of the man is delivered up; good it was to Him, if not was born the man that."

    In these verses Jesus is called "the Son of man" and "Him."  Judas is called "that man."  The problem is with the reversal of the last two phrases in the King James Version.  Clearly the "Him" and "that man" are NOT THE SAME PERSON.

    Here is how it should read:  "The SON OF MAN [Jesus] goes as it is written of HIM [Jesus];  but woe unto THAT MAN [Judas] by whom the SON OF MAN [Jesus] is betrayed! It had been good [ideal] for HIM [Jesus, not, 'that man'--Judas] if he ['that man'--Judas, not Jesus] had not been born."

    Many version switched "Him if that man" to "that man if he." They translated it according to the erroneous understanding, not according to sound translation.

    God be with you, Ray

    love, David
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