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Author Topic: Jews/Jesus  (Read 5362 times)

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  • Bible-Truths Forum Member
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« on: March 26, 2007, 10:35:43 PM »

Dear Anthony:
I will COMMENT after each of your questions............

> I found this a a Jewish website. How would you respond to this ?
> Biblical verses can only be understood by studying the original Hebrew text --
> which reveals many discrepancies in the Christian translation.
> The Christian idea of a virgin birth is derived from the verse in Isaiah 7:14
> describing an "alma" as giving birth. The word "alma" has always meant a
> young woman, but Christian theologians came centuries later and translated it
> as "virgin." This accords Jesus' birth with the first century pagan idea of
> mortals being impregnated by gods.
COMMENT:  Nonsense. It matters not if it is translated "virgin," "damsel," or "maiden." The fact that Mary was a virgin when she conceived Jesus is not predicated or proved by the translation of the word "alma."  The Scriptures plainly tell us that Mary was a virgin, in just so many words:  "Now the birth of of Jesus Christ was on this wise:  When as His mother Mary was espoused [betrothed] to Joseph, BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER [in sexual union], she was found with child OF THE HOLY SPIRIT....the angel of the Lord appeared unto him [Joseph] in a dream, saying, Joseph, you son of David, fear not to take unto you Mary your wife: for THAT WHICH IS CONCEIVED IN HER IS OF THE HOLY SPIRIT"  (Matt. 1:15-21).
> The verse in Psalms 22:17 reads: "Like a lion, they are at my hands and
> feet." The Hebrew word ki-ari (like a lion) is grammatically similar to the
> word "gouged." Thus Chri stianity reads the verse as a reference to
> crucifixion: "They pierced my hands and feet."
COMMENT:  It matter not what "Christianity" reads into this verse. Whether this verse has reference to nail holes or just gouged holes in His hands and feet is immaterial. Concordant translates it "digged holes in my hands and my feet."
> Christianity claims that Isaiah chapter 53 refers to Jesus, as the "suffering
> servant."
> In actuality, Isaiah 53 directly follows the theme of chapter 52, describing
> the exile and redemption of the Jewish people. The prophecies are written in
> the singular form because the Jews ("Israel") are regarded as one unit. The
> Torah is filled with examples of the Jewish nation referred to with a
> singular pronoun.
> Ironically, Isaiah's prophecies of persecution refer in part to the 11th
> century when Jews were tortured and killed by Crusaders who acted in the name
> of Jesus.
> From where did th e se mistranslations stem? St. Gregory, 4th century Bishop of
> Nanianzus, wrote: "A little jargon is all that is necessary to impose on the
> people. The less they comprehend, the more they admire."
COMMENT: Oh really?  The Jews "carried OUR sorrows?" Who is the "our?"(Verse 4). The Jews were "bruised for OUR iniquities?" (Verse 5). "By his [THE JEWS?] stripes we are HEALED?" (Verse 5).  "The Lord has laid on him [THE JEWS?] THE INIQUITY OF US ALL?" (Verse 6).  "...he [THE JEWS?] had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth?" (Verse 9). "Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; He has put him to grief: when you shall make his soul [THE JEWS?] an offering for sin?" (Verse 10).  I don't think so.
God be with you,

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