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Author Topic: Christ made to be sin?  (Read 5760 times)

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Christ made to be sin?
« on: April 19, 2007, 11:17:08 PM »

        Hello Ray,

        Perhaps I’m bringing up a subject which you consider “put to bed” and would prefer having it left that way. But I just thought I would write you a quick note of agreement.

        It concerns 2 Corinthians 5:21. (Christ made to be sin vs. sin offering). While you certainly destroyed all doubt about the proper meaning of that verse, I became curious as to what it said literally in Greek. I thought it would be appropriate for me to “search the scriptures” and learn what I could about why this controversy occurred. 

        After some cruising of the net, I found a bible study site that included the original Greek as part of their lessons. In its definition of the word sin (hamartia, 266), all the way at the bottom of many paragraphs of grammar usage that left my head spinning, there it was; 2 Corinthians 5:21 being used as an example of ‘the abstract for the concrete’. It was translated as: He treated Him who knew not sin as a sinner…...

        As you stated, languages can’t be translated literally word for word, but this is certainly closer to a sin offering than made to be sin.

        In addition, I realized that “For He has made Him who knew no sin, to be sin” can only be grammatically correct if the second ‘sin’ is used metaphorically, thus making it not a literal fact. Otherwise it is a bad translation (which it is).

        It’s interesting to note that, even though they have that translation in their definitions, the bible study still uses the “to be sin”  in their lessons.

        May God bless you and yours.     


        Dear Mike:

        NO, "He treated Him who knew not sin as a sinner…..."  is a horrible translation. God never treated His Son "AS IF" He were a sinner, seeing that He NEVER DID SIN!  "Sin OFFERING" is the proper translation, not based on the singular word "sin" from which it is taken, but based on the KNOWLEDGE OF HOWS LANGUAGE IS USED.  We have a plethora of proof from the Old Testament that "sin" MUST be translated "sin OFFERING," in many Scriptures, and that is why it was translated "sin offering" in many Scriptures. But in II Cor. 5:20, the Translators dropped the ball and did not do what they surely knew was the proper way to translate it, but since they were working with Greek rather than Hebrew, they let it slide.

        I have about 30 pages of notes on this subject and I will turn it into a full article in the near future, so look for it. There are many, many, Scriptural proofs against the damnable heresy that Jesus Himself was the personification of sin and that His Father was displeased with Him, and that He was marred in His Fathers hands, and had to be crushed and ground to powder all the days of His life, and that God thus poured out His anger, indignation and wrath against His Son, and that Jesus' blood was no different and no better than ours. I will blow this damnable teaching right out of the sky!

        God be with you,


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