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Psalms 51:5

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Brett:
Hello,

Interesting, but I want to make sure I understand right. Is that verse mean you have sin since the first conceive in your mother's womb?  This verse, to me, is like once conceive and that is include sin, because of the nature of flesh. I am not complain about this verse, no, I just want to understand right, that is all I need. See verse:


Psa 51:5 
"Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and IN SIN DID MY MOTHER CONCEIVE ME (David)."


What you think? If you think I am wrong understand, please say it.

I am deaf person, I know I said that several times, but because deaf can misunderstand of any English sentence. Not just me, many deaf that way, too. Just reminding you .

Thanks!

Brett

enarchay:

--- Quote from: Brett on July 29, 2007, 10:28:22 PM ---Hello,

Interesting, but I want to make sure I understand right. Is that verse mean you have sin since the first conceive in your mother's womb?  This verse, to me, is like once conceive and that is include sin, because of the nature of flesh. I am not complain about this verse, no, I just want to understand right, that is all I need. See verse:


Psa 51:5 
"Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and IN SIN DID MY MOTHER CONCEIVE ME (David)."


What you think? If you think I am wrong understand, please say it.

I am deaf person, I know I said that several times, but because deaf can misunderstand of any English sentence. Not just me, many deaf that way, too. Just reminding you :).

Thanks! :D

Brett


--- End quote ---

I'm not 100 percent sure, and it indeed should extract further attention, but I would say what David meant was that his mother conceived him while living under the Law imperfectly and that he would inherit the carnal flesh that one day will turn to dust that all humans inherit because of Adam's sin.

The context seems to allude to the Law, especially with David's mentioning of the cleansing of sin (relating to blood sacrifice) in verse 2. David acknowledges his sins in verse 3 and sin is made manifest by the Law (Rom 7:7). The reason David was conceived in sin is because it is impossible for any human to keep the Law perfectly (i.e. Act 15:10). In other words, David's mother was not living under the Law perfectly, and therefore was sinful and conceived David in that very sin. This is why the Israelites required a blood sacrifice: to cleanse them of the sins they committed under the Law.

As for the iniquity, I would say that refers to the corruptibility of the human flesh that all humans inherit. Through Adam, for his sin, came death, something all humans are born to be susceptible to. We are born in iniquity--flesh that one day will fall to the dust of the Earth. Not to mention humans are naturally carnal.

lilitalienboi16:

--- Quote from: Brett on July 29, 2007, 10:28:22 PM ---Hello,

Interesting, but I want to make sure I understand right. Is that verse mean you have sin since the first conceive in your mother's womb?  This verse, to me, is like once conceive and that is include sin, because of the nature of flesh. I am not complain about this verse, no, I just want to understand right, that is all I need. See verse:


Psa 51:5 
"Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and IN SIN DID MY MOTHER CONCEIVE ME (David)."


What you think? If you think I am wrong understand, please say it.

I am deaf person, I know I said that several times, but because deaf can misunderstand of any English sentence. Not just me, many deaf that way, too. Just reminding you :).

Thanks! :D

Brett





--- End quote ---

I believe ray talks about this. I can't remember where but something about 'Death bieng passed onto all men' and NOT sin.

We inherited death from adam and eve, not sin. We are created subject to vanity [moral weakness].

I believe this verse had something to do with innacurate translation of some sort, i can't remember what was said about it. Perhaps someoen can dig this information up.

I could be wrong offcourse so feel free to correct me.

Love,

Alex

Brett:
Thanks again, Alex

I think I might remember Ray's reply or maybe not, but the scriptures does not confusing me: Rom. 6:23 "The wage of SIN IS DEATH" and Rom. 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and DEATH BY SIN; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned


Also, in Ps. 51:5 is very clear, doesn't it?

It will be interesting to see what other will say (if they will). ;)

Brett

enarchay:

--- Quote from: lilitalienboi16 on July 30, 2007, 01:55:41 AM ---
--- Quote from: Brett on July 29, 2007, 10:28:22 PM ---Hello,

Interesting, but I want to make sure I understand right. Is that verse mean you have sin since the first conceive in your mother's womb?  This verse, to me, is like once conceive and that is include sin, because of the nature of flesh. I am not complain about this verse, no, I just want to understand right, that is all I need. See verse:


Psa 51:5 
"Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and IN SIN DID MY MOTHER CONCEIVE ME (David)."


What you think? If you think I am wrong understand, please say it.

I am deaf person, I know I said that several times, but because deaf can misunderstand of any English sentence. Not just me, many deaf that way, too. Just reminding you :).

Thanks! :D

Brett





--- End quote ---

I believe ray talks about this. I can't remember where but something about 'Death bieng passed onto all men' and NOT sin.

We inherited death from adam and eve, not sin. We are created subject to vanity [moral weakness].

I believe this verse had something to do with innacurate translation of some sort, i can't remember what was said about it. Perhaps someoen can dig this information up.

I could be wrong offcourse so feel free to correct me.

Love,

Alex

--- End quote ---

I agree. I do not buy into the doctrine of "original sin." We sin on our own. It is the consequences of sin we inherited from Adam.

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