> Dear Ray,
>
> I'll keep this short and sweet. Why do you use the fact that the
> KJV "once contained the 14 books of the Apochrypha" without
> letting your readers know that the translators of the KJV put
> them IN BETWEEN the Old and New Testaments, clearly marked,
> and did not integrate them into Scripture as the corrupt Alexandrian
> manuscripts and Roman Catholic bibles do? The translators also gave
> seven reasons why they did not integrate them in the foreword to the
> reader. Was this an oversight on your part, or another attempt to
> further discredit the KJV without giving your readers the truth? Too
> bad this question won't receive a response or see the light of day on
> your web site, I'd really be interested in your answer.
>
> Sincerely,
> Josep
Oh, I see. Rather than put them all the way in the BACK of the book to show
that they have little or no value as Scripture, they put them SMACK-DAB RIGHT
IN THE VERY MIDDLE BETWEEN THE OLD AND NEW TESTAMENT where
everyone would be sure to see and read them. How much more prominently
could they have possibly presented them?
Question is, if they are not Scripture, why did they put them in there AL ALL?
And why, pray tell, did they TAKE THEM OUT?
God be with you,
Ray
PS I will post your email on our Forum for the whole world to read to show that
I am not hiding from anything or trying to deceive anyone.