In Gen. 1:26-27 "created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them," this is the first creation of human beings. Not as a herd, Bob, but a single man and woman that God started with, probably many thousands of years before Adam and Eve. Possibly similar to what scientist say, where they gradually spread out across the world.
Then at the time appointed God "formed" Adam (Gen 2:7), this was the beginning of His plan of salvation for mankind, through that lineage.
I know we talked about having 'different ancestors' before, but still, I'm not at all clear on this question... What do you mean when you say "God formed" Adam? If he was physically (biologically) a unique creature (not a mixing and replication of existing genes via sexual reproduction), then he had no ancestry--no lineage--"Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God".
Like the King of Salem.
So two different creations of "man", and two different lineages...
Or, did you mean that "Adam" was 'formed, i.e., born/begotten/descended' from the earlier race? In which case, what did God actually DO? (A Damascus road experience?)
The former: Two separate Creations, unrelated. The latter: One Creation; shared ancestry; God intervenes.
I was thinking you subscribed to the former. (?)
Hi Michael, "Formed" is the word used in Scripture and I believe it meant that God literally "formed" a new creature with Adam, but of the same type as the rest of humanity already there, "one blood" (Acts 17:26). So yes I do see it as the formed one you said, "
So two different creations of "man", and two different lineages." But Adam was not like the king of Salem in that he DID have beginning of days and an end to his life.
Alex, already posted where Ray had made comments in an email on this subject, but here it is again.
http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,12719.msg111472.html#msg111472 ---------
RAY'S COMMENT: Chapter two does not contradict chapter one. The order in chapter one is plants, animals, and then humanity. Is this not the order found in the geologic table? Chapter two does not recount the creation of humanity, but rather the creation of Adam and Eve. In Genesis 1:26 God "made" [Heb: 'asah'] male and female. In Gen. 2:6 God "formed" [Heb: 'yatsar'] Adam--two difference Hebrew words: two different formations. Notice that it doesn't say in chapter 2 verse 3 that there was no man on earth at this time, but rather that there was "no man to till the ground." There were men, but they were hunters/gatherers, not farmers. God is now going to make a more advance human to cultivate and farm the land.
The phrase "dress it and keep it" in verse 15, is "tend and cultivate." God is teaching Adam to be a farmer. When in doubt, read a proper translation. God did not create the animals AFTER He created Adam. Notice a proper translation from the Concordant Literal Old Testament: "And furthermore, Ieu Alueim ['the Lord God'] HAVING FORMED [yes, having ALREADY formed, millions of years in the past] all field life and every flyer of the heavens." God is bringing to Adam the Animal species which He had already created millions of years in the past, to have Adam give names to them. This obviously took years. Some, such as the dinosaurs (the reptilian 'tannyin, tannyim,' of Gen. 1:21 had already been extinct for many millions of years. These were decidedly not, "great whales," as the King James erroneously translates it).
It was from this first group of humanity that Cain apparently got his wife, cities were built, etc.
Chapter two does not cover the creation of plant life. That began hundreds of millions of years earlier. What God is doing in Chapter two is He is planting a garden for the man to cultivate, farm, and harvest. The word "planted" in Gen. 2:8 is from the Hebrew meaning "to sprout." God "sprouted" newly planted trees, etc. They were mere buds, which would require years to produce fruit to eat. What was Adam expected to eat until these trees matured?
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Zvezda, I know that you said we don't know when the statement, "there was no man to till the ground" was speaking of, but if not before Adam then when, before mankind altogether or some other arbitrary time back in history? Why would God make that comment there, doesn't make sense to me. But that statement was made just prior to God speaking of His creating Adam, and then God goes on to say He "put him in the garden of Eden to tend and keep it." How could this be speaking of anything else? God said there was no man to till and then right there gave the solution for that, He created Adam to tend and keep the garden.
If you would rather hold to what scientist teach on this, than that is your prerogative. But the Scripture does speak pretty clearly on this and to me Scripture comes before science every time.
mercy, peace and love
Kat