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John 5:37

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Kat:

Hi bob,

Here a email that explains that verse.

http://forums.bible-truths.com/index.php/topic,5374.0.html ---

Dear Mark:
Notice that it was "a" voice, not the Father's voice. God has many millions of messengers (erroneously called "angels" in Scripture). A messenger delivers messages. These particular message was that "This is My beloved Son, in Whom I am well pleased, hear ye Him."  The messenger ("a voice") delivered the message.  Simple, huh?

God be with you,
Ray

santgem:
Even before the Jew and at the time of Jew many of them had already heard and seen God.

At the time of disciples they clearly see and hear God himself.

Then Jesus told them that no one heard and seen His Father at anytime..........

bob:
My question came from this comment I found while searching the internet:
"In the three gospel accounts of the transfiguration of Jesus in Matthew 17, Mark 9, and Luke 9, Peter, James and John heard a voice say, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. Hear him!" (Matthew 17:5). Simple logic tells us that this was the voice of God the Father. It could not have been an angel, or the words would be a lie!"  Aha, but  I just remembered Ray saying Jesus said tell no one the vision. It was a vision. I guess that would also apply to any references of God speaking in Revelation. If I may borrow a quote from Ray, " Am I off track on this"   Bob

dave:
I am only asking about this because as I was reading the post, Genesis 2:16 came to mind as well as Gen. 3:8 thru- what command, voice, sound did man/Adam hear. Just so you know I must believe John 5:37

John from Kentucky:

All of this is easy to understand if two basic, paramount truths are understood by the power of the Holy Spirit.

1)  God does not lie.

2)  God's Word does not lie.

That means there are no true contradictions in the Scriptures!  No, not one.

Of course, the unlearned and unstable can find hundreds, if not thousands of apparent contradictions in the Scriptures, and these apparent contradictions are the source of their unbelief.

When Jesus says that no one has seen or heard His Father--that is absolute truth.  There can be no contradiction of this basic truth or Jesus is a liar.  Which cannot be so because Jesus is God and does not lie.

Therefore, when others hear a voice that says, "This is my beloved Son", that voice is not the voice of the Father.

Whose voice is it?  As Ray simply stated it, it is the voice of a messenger.  A messenger brings a message.  There are no two Scriptures that say the voice was actually the voice of the Father.

In Col 1:15 and elsewhere, Jesus is the image of the invisible God.  In John 1:1 Jesus is called the Word or Spokesman or Expression of God.

The Father is invisible Spirit outside our five senses and our comprehension.  If the Father could be seen or heard, then why would Jesus be needed as His visible image or His Word?

In the Old Testament, when God is seen or heard, it is therefore not the Father.  It is the One we know as Jesus.

None of the Scriptures contradict, which is why those with God's Spirit can have peace and understanding, if they believe the Scriptures by the Grace of God.

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