Hi santgem,
I would like to discuss a few of your comments, we are all seeking a better understand of these things, so the more Scripture we can see on these things the better. I see Alex has answered you already and I may have repeated some of what he is saying, but I'll leave it as it is.
8. Jesus who is the Word/Jehovah/YHWH/I AM/Savior and not Jesus in the flesh is co-
creator of God the Father for all. (After Jesus ascended to His Father we can conclude
that they are now continuously creating).
I trying to understand what you mean by "After Jesus ascended to His Father we can conclude
that they are now continuously creating"? There is a Scripture that shows They (Father and Son) continued to "work" while Jesus was in the flesh... do you consider that different than 'creating'?
John 5:17 But Jesus answered them, "My Father has been working until now, and I have been working."
I mean I do know what you mean by They continue creating after Jesus ascended... the literal act of creation was "finished" in Genesis 2, but certainly the work continues.
Gen 2:1 Thus the heavens and the earth, and all the host of them, were finished. Just trying to see where you're coming from on this.
9. If Jesus say “I came OUT from God” be it known that Jesus is in the flesh not Jesus
who is the Word/YHWH/Jehovah. All of Jesus saying in NT regarding himself is Him in
the Flesh (any correction/s are gladly welcome)
10. God the Father and Jehovah [Jesus] Elohim, ARE ONE GOD. "I and My Father are ONE"
(John 10:30). "One" what? O-N-E G-O-D! (by RAY)
Okay so Jesus did make that statement while in the flesh... was He somebody different as the God of the OT then? NO of course not... right in your next comment it clarifies that He/Jesus/the Son, and the Father is One. They always were One and always will be One, They are inseparable.
Rev 1:8 "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End," says the Lord, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty."
When that God became human He now subjected to His Father, Even after that human who is God raised from the dead by God the Father, He will have a God and a Father, because that Human who is God who is Jesus did not cease to be God and will be Man according to Scriptures.
Other will say no, he will not be a man because he already had a glorious body, but can anyone deny the Scriptures?
1Tim. 2:5For there is one God and one mediator between God and mankind, the man Christ Jesus.
Acts 17:31For he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to everyone by raising him from the dead.”
Okay not sure but from this it seems like you are saying that the OT God - the Son was not subject to the Father until He became flesh? Well there are also words used like "let
Us make man in
Our" (Gen 1:26) "Come, let
Us go down" (Gen 11:7). But it was not until Jesus came and revealed to the world that there was this Father and Son relationship that we know of it.
Luke 10:22 All things have been delivered to Me by My Father, and no one knows who the Son is except the Father, and who the Father is except the Son, and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him."
Now that Christ revealed the Father, we can see where the Son was referred to in the OT and even then He was referred to be "MY (Father's) Servant" (the Son who became Christ Jesus), meaning He/the Son was subject to the Father even then.
Isa 42:1 Behold My Servant! I am upholding Him. My Chosen! Accepted by My soul! I bestow My spirit upon Him, and He shall bring forth judgment to the nations." (CLV)
And we can understand that this was indeed speaking of who would become Christ Jesus and be crucified "a bruised Reed," but that is being declared then and there "Behold" at that time when it is spoken and also a prophecy of what He will be sent to do.
Isa 42:3 A bruised reed He will not break, and dimmed flax He will not quench, for truth will He bring forth judgment." (CLV)
I would also like to show some Scripture of Him being a man in the OT... I don't think there would be any dispute about His being a man now, in His glorious form as of the Scripture you gave. I'm trying to figure out if you're saying He/the Son had to take on human form to be a man? So here are OT Scripture that does show He was always considered as a man there in the OT, both in His glorious form and in the natural physical form.
Eze 1:26 And above the firmament over their heads was the likeness of a throne, in appearance like a sapphire stone; on the likeness of the throne was a likeness with the appearance of a man high above it. (also see Eze 08).
Gen 18:1 Then the LORD appeared to him by the terebinth trees of Mamre, as he was sitting in the tent door in the heat of the day.
v. 2 So he lifted his eyes and looked, and behold, three men were standing by him; and when he saw them, he ran from the tent door to meet them, and bowed himself to the ground,
v. 3 and said, "My Lord, if I have now found favor in Your sight, do not pass on by Your servant.
He was brought forth from the beginning to be the Spokesman and to have an image/shape/form for the invisible God, from which He would then create the physical form of mankind to be like Him.
Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
Gen 9:6 "Whoever sheds man's blood, By man his blood shall be shed;
For in the image of God He made man.
1Cor 11:7 For a man indeed ought not to cover his head, since
he is the image and glory of God; but woman is the glory of man.
Now I believe this is speaking of the physical form and certainly not the spiritual image of God, that as we know is a process still being worked out. So this is Scripture I found that you may want to consider in your study.
mercy, peace and love
Kat